ugc net 2001 paper-1 solved paper

1. Which novel has a nameless narrator?
(a) Moby Dick
(b) Anna Karenina
(c) Invisible Man
(d) The Grapes of Wrath
2. Samuel Beckett wrote -
(a) Volpone
(b) Mother Courage and Her Children
(c) A Doll's House
(d) Endgame
3. Which one of the following author-book pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Elfride Jelinek - The Pianist
(b) J.M. Coetzee- Shame
(c) Saul Bellow - Herzog
(d) Salman Rushdie - Disgrace
4. The Plough and the ‘Stars' was written by -
(a) G.B. Shaw
(b) Sean O'Casey
(c) Lady Gregory
(d) J.M. Synge
5. Willy Loman is a character in-
(a) Waiting for Godot
(b) A Doll's House
(c) The Cherry Orchard
(d) The Death of a Salesman
6. John Evellyn and Samuel Pepys were the famous writers of -
(a) Editorials
(b) Letters
(c) Essays
(d) Diaries
7. The subtitle of Dryden's Absalom and Achitophel is -
(a) There was no subtitle
(b) A Poem
(c) A Satire
(d) A satire on the True Blue Protestant Poets
8. Who of the following is not a periodical essayist?
(a) Richard Steele
(b) Lancelot Andrews
(c) Joseph Addison
(d) Jonathan Swift
9. "Did he who made the Lamb made thee" appears in-
(a) ‘Introduction'
(b) ‘ The Tyger'
(c) ‘Chimney Sweeper'
(d) ‘London'
10. Which of the following thinker- concept pairs is rightly matched?
(a) I.A. Richards - Archetypal criticism
(b) Northrop Frye-Practical criticism
(c) Jacqes Devide - New Historicism
(d) Stanley Fish - Reader Response
11. "Essays of Eila" are-
(a) Economic disparity
(b) Literary criticism
(c) Political ideology
(d) Personal impressions
12. Which of the following thinker - concept pairs is rightly matched?
(a) Mamata - Vakrokti
(b) Abhinava Gupta- Kavya Alankar
(c) Bharata - Natya Shastra
(d) Vaman - Dhwanyaloka
13. Choose the correct sequence of the following schools of criticism -
(a) Deconstruction, New Criticism, Structuralism, Reader Response
(b) Reader Response, Deconstruction, Structuralism, New Criticism
(c) New Criticism, Structuralism, Deconstruction, Reader Response
(d) Structuralism, New Criticism, Deconstruction, Reader Response
14. ‘Peripeteia' means -
(a) Tragic flaw
(b) Recognition of error
(c) Purgation of emotion
(d) Reversal of fortune
15. ‘Gynocriticism' focuses on -
(a) Criticism of male writers by women writers
(b) Criticism on women
(c) Criticism by women
(d) Women as writers
16. Samuel Butler's Hudibras is modeled upon -
(a) Don Quixote
(b) Endymion
(c) Annus Mirabilis
(d) Pilgrim's Progress
17. Who was the last of the Christian Humanists?
(a) John Bunyan
(b) Oliver Cromwell
(c) John Milton
(d) Richard Crashaw
18. The narrative of Raja Rao's Kanthapura is based on-
(a) The Ramayana
(b) The Mahabharata
(c) Puranas
(d) Shastras
19. Which of the following author- book pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Arundhati Roy - Algebra of Infinite Justice
(b) Shashi Tharoor - Trotter's Name
(c) C.L.R. James - The English Patient
(d) David Madouf - The Cityof Djins
20. Who wrote ‘A tiger does not proclaim its tigretude' ?
(a) Derek Walcott
(b) Soyinka
(c) Achebe
(d) Ngugi
21. ‘Jindiworobak' movement relates to -
(a) Caribbean literature
(b) Canadian literature
(c) Australian literature
(d) New Zealand literature
22. The Montreal group of poets championed the cause of-
(a) Modernist poetry
(b) Imagist poetry
(c) Symbolist poetry
(d) Nature poetry
23. The figure of the ‘Abyssinian Maid' appears in-
(a) ‘Kubla Khan'
(b) ‘Frost at Midnight'
(c) ‘Dejection : an Ode'
(d) ‘Christabel'
24. Coleridge's statement that imagination "dissolves, diffuse, dissipates in order to recreate" relates to -
(a) secondary imagination
(b) esemplastic imagination
(c) fancy
(d) primary imagination
25. Who among the following is a writer of historical romances?
(a) Walter Savage
(b) Walter Scott
(c) Jane Austen
(d) Emily Bronte
26. Which of the following sequences is correct?
(a) Vanity Fair, Henry Esmond, Middlemarch, The Return of the Native
(b) Henry Esmond, Vanity Fair, Middlemarch, The Return of the Native
(c) Middlemarch, The Return of the Native, Vanity Fair, Henry Esmond
(d) The Return of the Native, Middlemarch, Vanity Fair, Henry Esmond
27. Queen Victoria's reign, after whom the Victorian period is named, spans-
(a) 1833 - 1901
(b) 1837 - 1901
(c) 1840 - 1905
(d) 1843 - 1905
28. Pre- Raphaelite poetry is mainly concerned with -
(a) narrative and style
(b) narrative and nature
(c) form and design
(d) form and value
29. The concept of "mad woman in the attic" can be traced to-
(a) The Tenant of Wildfell- Hall
(b) Villette
(c) Wuthering Heights
(d) Jane Eyre
30. Who among the Victorians is called "the prophet of modern society" ?
(a) Ruskin
(b) Carlyle
(c) Macaulay
(d) Arnold
31. Who among the following is not a pilgrim in The Canterbury Tales?
(a) The Haberdasher
(b) The Tapyser
(c) The Blacksmith
(d) The Summoner
32. Bosola is the executioner in -
(a) The Spanish Tragedy
(b) The Duchess of Malfi
(c) The White Devil
(d) The Jew of Malta
33. The mystery plays deal with -
(a) The life of Christ
(b) The New Testament
(c) Psalms
(d) Apocrypha
34. The Faerie Queene is based on -
(a) Utopia
(b) Tottel's Miscellany
(c) Morte d' Arthur
(d) Orlando Furioso
35. Choose the correct chronological sequence of the following plays-
(a) King Lear, Othello, Macbeth, Hamlet
(b) Othello, Macbeth, King Lear, Hamlet
(c) Hamlet, Othello, King Lear, Macbeth
(d) Hamlet, King Lear, Othello, Macbeth
36. Pope's ‘Essay on Criticism' sums up the art of poetry as taught first by-
(a) Aristotle
(b) Horace
(c) Longinus
(d) Plato
37. Swift's Tale of a Tub is a satire on -
(a) Science and philosophy
(b) Art and morality
(c) Dogma and superstition
(d) Fake morals and manners
38. Dr. Johnson started -
(a) The Postman
(b) The Spectator
(c) The Rambler
(d) The Tatler
39. Who among the following cautioned against the dangers of popular liberty?
(a) Mary Wollstonecraft
(b) Edmund Burke
(c) Thomas Hobbes
(d) John Locke
40. Which famous American classic opens with "Call me Ishmael"?
(a) Rip Van Winkle
(b) The Scarlet Letter
(c) The Grapes of Wrath
(d) Moby Dick
41. Allen Ginsberg's Vision of America is inspired by -
(a) Walt Whitman
(b) Robert Frost
(c) Ralph Waldo Emerson
(d) Edgar A. Poe
42. Who among the following represents the Sri Lankan diaspora ?
(a) M.G. Vassanji
(b) Cyril Debydeen
(c) Michael Ondaatje
(d) Arnold H. Itwaru
43. Out of Africa is a film adaptation of a work by -
(a) Alice Walker
(b) Margaret Lawrence
(c) Margaret Atwood
(d) Alice Munro
44. The Empire Writes Back was written by -
(a) Bill Ashcroft, Helen Tiffin, Ngugi Wa Thinngo
(b) Bill Ashcroft, Helen Tiffin, Stephen Slemon
(c) Bill Ashcroft, Gareth Griffiths, Chinua Achebe
(d) Bill Ashcroft, Helen Tiffin, Gareth Griffiths
45. The Theatre of Cruelty is associated with -
(a) Stanislavosky
(b) Grotovsky
(c) Antonin Artand
(d) Eugino Barba
46. A particle is -
(a) A patchwork of words, sentences, passages
(b) A satirical poem
(c) A love song
(d) A collection of lines from different poems
47. "Careless she is with artful Care/ Affecting to seem unaffected" is an example of -
(a) Irony
(b) Paradox
(c) Simile
(d) Metaphor
48. A metrical foot containing a stressed, followed by an unstressed, syllable is - (a) Anapaest
(b) Iamb
(c) Trochee
(d) Dacty 1
49. The rhyme scheme of a Spenserian sonnet is -
(a) abba, cbcb, cdcd, ee
(b) abab, bccb, ccdd, ee
(c) aabb, bcbc, ccdd, ee
(d) abab, bcbc, cdcd, ee
50. Using the expression ‘Crown' for the monarchy is an example of -
(a) Metonymy
(b) Synecdoche
(c) Irony
(d) Metaphor

Answers

1. (c), 2. (d), 3. (c), 4. (b), 5. (d), 6. (d), 7. (b), 8. (d), 9. (c), 10. (d), 11. (d), 12. (c), 13. (b), 14. (d), 15. (d), 16. (a), 17. (a), 18. (c), 19. (a), 20. (c), 21. (a), 22. (a), 23. (a), 24. (d), 25. (b), 26. (a), 27. (b), 28. (c), 29. (c), 30. (d), 31. (b), 32. (b), 33. (b), 34. (c), 35. (c), 36. (c), 37. (c), 38. (c), 39. (b), 40. (a), 41. (a), 42. (c), 43. (b), 44. (c), 45. (b), 46. (a), 47. (b), 48. (c), 49. (d), 50. (a)

ugc net Paper I

1. Which one of the following is the main objective of teaching?
(A) To give information related to the syllabus.
(B) To develop thinking power of students.
(C) To dictate notes to students.
(D) To prepare students to pass the examination.
2. Which one of the following is a good method of teaching?
(A) Lecture and Dictation
(B) Seminar and Project
(C) Seminar and Dictation
(D) Dictation and Assignment
3. Teacher uses teaching aids for
(A) Making teaching interesting
(B) Making teaching within understanding level of students
(C) Making students attentive.
(D) The sake of its use.
4. Effectiveness of teaching depends on
(A) Qualification of teacher
(B) Personality of teacher
(C) Handwriting of teacher
(D) Subject understanding of teacher
5. Which of the following is not characteristic of a good question paper?
(A) Objectivity
(B) Subjectivity
(C) No use of vague words
(D) Reliable.
6. A researcher is generally expected to:
(A) Study the existing literature in a field
(B) Generate new principles and theories
(C) Synthesize the idea given by others
(D) Evaluate the findings of a study
7. One of the essential characteristics of research is:
(A) Replicability
(B) Generalizability
(C) Usability
(D) Objectivity
8. The Government of India conducts Census after every 10 years. The method of research used in this process is:
(A) Case Study
(B) Developmental
(C) Survey
(D) Experimental
9. An academic association assembled at one place to discuss the progress of its work and future plans. Such an assembly is known as a
(A) Conference
(B) Seminar
(C) Workshop
(D) Symposium
10. An investigator studied the census date for a given area and prepared a write-up based on them. Such a write-up is called
(A) Research paper
(B) Article
(C) Thesis
(D) Research report
Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 11 to 15
The constitution guarantees every citizen the fundamental right to equality. Yet after 50 years of independence, just one perusal of the female infant mortality figures, the literacy rates and the employment opportunities for women is sufficient evidence that discrimination exists. Almost predictably, this gender, bias is evident in our political system as well. In the 13th Lok Sabha, there were only 43 women MPs out of total of 543; it is not a surprising figure, for never has women's representation in Parliament been more than 10 per cent.
Historically, the manifestos of major political have always encouraged women's participation. It has been merely a charade. So, women's organizations, denied a place on merit, opted for the last resort; a reservation of seats for women in parliament and State Assemblies. Parties, which look at everything with a vote bank in mind, seemed to endorse this. Alas, this too was a mirage.
But there is another aspect also. At a time when caste is the trump card, some politicians want the bill to include further quotas fro women from among minorities and backward castes. There is more to it. A survey shows that there is a general antipathy towards the bill. It is actually a classic case of doublespeak: in public, politicians were endorsing women's reservation but in the backrooms of Parliament, they were busy sabotaging it. The reasons are clear: Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power.
11. The problem raised in the passage reflects badly on our
(A) Political system
(B) Social behaviour
(C) Individual behaviour
(D) Behaviour of a group of people
12. According to the passage, political parties have mostly in mind
(A) Economic prosperity
(B) Vote bank
(C) People' welfare
(D) Patriotism
13. "Trump Card" means
(A) Trying to move a dead horse
(B) Playing the card cautiously
(C) Sabotaging all the moves by others
(D) Making the final jolt for success
14. The sentence "Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power" implies
(A) Lust for power
(B) Desire to serve the nation
(C) Conviction in one's own political abilities
(D) Political corruption
15. What is the percentage of women in the Lok Sabha
(A) 10
(B) 7. 91
(C) 43
(D) 9. 1
16. Informal communication network within the organization is knows as
(A) Interpersonal communication
(B) Intrapersonal Communication
(C) Mass Communication
(D) Grapevine Communication
17. TV Channel launched fro covering only Engineering and Technology subject is known as
(A) Gyan Darshan
(B) Vyas
(C) Eklavya
(D) Kisan
18. In which state the maximum number of periodicals are brought out for public information:
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Punjab
19. The main objective of public broadcasting system i. e Prasar Bharti is
(A) Inform, Entertainment & Education
(B) Entertain, Information & Interaction
(C) Educate, Interact & entertain
(D) Entertainment only
20. The competerrcy of an effective communicator can be judged on the basis of:
(A) Personality of communicator
(B) Experience in the field
(C) Interactivity with target audience
(D) Meeting the needs of target audience.
21. Which one of the following belongs to the category of homogeneous date:
(A) Multi-storeyed houses in a colony
(B) Trees in a garden
(C) Vehicular traffic on a highway
(D) Student population in a class
22. In which of the following ways a theory is not different from a belief?
(A) Antecedent - consequent
(B) Acceptability
(C) Verifiability
(D) Demonstratability
23. The state - "Honesty is the best policy" is
(A) A fact
(B) An value
(C) An opinion
(D) A value judgement
24. Which one is like pillar, pole and standard?
(A) Beam
(B) Plank
(C) Shaft
(D) Timber
25. Following incomplete series is presented. Find out the number which should come at the place of question mark which will complete the series: 4, 16, 36, 64, ?
(A) 300
(B) 200
(C) 100
(D) 150
26. The following question is based on the diagram given below. If the two big circles represent animals living on soil and those living in water, and the small circle stands for the animals who both live on soil and in water, which figure represents the relationships among them.

27. Of the following statement, there are two statements both of which cannot be true but both can be false. Which are these two statements?
(i) All machines make noise
(ii) Some machines are noisy
(iii) No machine makes noise
(iv) Some machines are not noisy
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
28. In the following question a statement is followed by two assumptions.
(i) and (ii) . An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.
Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the following assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: We need not worry about errors but must try to learn from our errors.
Assumptions:
(i) Errors may take place when we are carrying out certain work.
(ii) We are capable of benefiting from the past and improve our chances of error-free work.
(A) Only assumption (i) is implicit
(B) Only assumption (ii) is implicit
(C) Either assumption (i) or (ii) is implicit
(D) Both the assumptions are implicit
29. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered (i) and (ii) Decide which of the arguments is 'strong' and which is 'weak'. Choose the correct answer from the given below Should the press exercise some self-restraint?
(i) Yes, they should not publish new items which may incite the readers to indulge in wrong practices.
(ii) No. it is the responsibility of the press to present the truth irrespective of the consequences.
(A) Only the argument (i) is strong
(B) Only the argument (ii) is strong
(C) Neither argument (i) nor (ii) is strong
(D) Both the arguments (i) and (ii) are strong
30. Study the argument and the inference drawn from that argument. Given below carefully.
Argument: Anything that goes up definitely falls down. Helicopter goes up. Inference: So the helicopter will definitely fall down.
What in your opinion is the inference drawn from the argument?
(A) Valid
(B) Invalid
(C) Doubtful
(D) Long drawn one
Four students W, X, Y, Z appeared in four papers, I, II, III and IV in a test. Their scores out of 100 are given below.

Students	Papers
	I	II	III	IV
W	60	81	45	55
X	59	43	51	A
Y	74	A	71	65
Z	72	76	A	68
Where 'A' stands for absent

Where 'A' stands for absent
Read the above table and answer below mentioned Questions 31 to 35
31. Which candidate has secured between 60-65% marks in aggregate
(A) W
(B) X
(C) Y
(D) Z
32. Who has obtained the lowest average in aggregate.
(A) W
(B) X
(C) Y
(D) Z
33. Who has obtained the highest average
(A) W
(B) X
(C) Y
(D) Z
34. In which paper the lowest marks were obtained by thecandiates
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
35. Which candidate has secured the highest percentage in the papers appeared
(A) W
(B) X
(C) Y
(D) Z
36. ICT stands for
(A) Information common technology
(B) Information & communication technology
(C) Information and computer technology
(D) Inter connected technology
37. Computer Can
(A) Process both quantitative and qualitative information
(B) Store huge information
(C) Process information and fast accurately
(D) All the above.
38. Satellite Communication works through
(A) Rader
(B) Transponder
(C) Receptor
(D) Transmitter
39. A Computer is that machine which works more like a human brain. This definition of computer is
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
(C) Partially correct
(D) None of the above.
40. Information and communication technology includes
(A) E-mail
(B) Internet
(C) Education television
(D) All the above.
41. It is believed that our globe is warming progressively. This global warming will eventually result in.
(A) Increase in availability of usable land.
(B) Uniformity of climate at equator and poles.
(C) Fall in the sea level
(D) melting of polar ice.
42. In which parts of India ground water is affected with arsenic contamination?
(A) Haryana
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) West Bengal
43. Sunderban in Hooghly delta is known for
(A) Grasslands
(B) Conifers
(C) Mangroves
(D) Arid forests
44. Sardar Sarover dam is located on the river
(A) Ganga
(B) Godavari
(C) Mahanadi
(D) Narmada
45. Which one of the following trees has medicinal value?
(A) Pine
(B) Teak
(C) Neem
(D) Oak
46. Which one of the following is not considered a part of technical education in India:
(A) Medical
(B) Management
(C) Pharmaceutical
(D) Aeronautical
47. Which of the following is a Central university
(A) Mumbai University
(B) Calcutta University
(C) Delhi University
(D) Madras University
48. Identify the main Principle on which the Parliamentary System Operates
(A) Responsibility of Executive to Legislature
(B) Supremacy of Parliament
(C) Supremacy of Judiciary
(D) Theory of Separation of Power
49. The reservation of seats for women in the Panchayat Raj Institutions is:
(A) 30 % of the total seats
(B) 33 % of the total seate
(C) 33% of the total population
(D) In Proportion to their population
50. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
LIST ( Institutions)
LIST II( Locations)
1. Indian Veterinary Research Institute
(i) Pune
2. Institute of Armament Technology
(ii) Izat Nagar
3. Indian Institute of Science
(iii) Delhi
4. National Institute for Educational Pannesi
(iv) Bangalore and Administrators
(A) 1(ii), 2(i), 3(iv), 4(iii)
(B) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(ii), 4(iii)
(C) 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(iv)
(D) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i)

ANSWERS:

1.	B	2.	B	3.	B	4.	D	5.	B	6.	B	7.	D	8.	C	9.	A	10.	B
11.	B	12.	B	13.	D	14.	A	15.	B	16.	D	17.	C	18.	C	19.	A	20.	D
21.	A	22.	B	23.	D	24.	A	25.	A	26.	D	27.	C	28.	D	29.	A	30.	D
31.	A	32.	B	33.	A	34.	B	35.	D	36.	B	37.	D	38.	B	39.	A	40.	D
41.	D	42.	D	43.	C	44.	D	45.	C	46.	A	47.	C	48.	A	49.	B	50.	A

UGC NET BIOLOGY PREVIOUS SOLVED PAPER

1. Consider the following statements:
A. Cholesterol is a structural component of biological membranes.
B. Sphingolipids at. cell surfaces are the sites of biological recognition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (c)
2. Which of the following kinds of substances are present in the cell wall of bacteria?
(a) N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid
(b) Amylopectin and cellulase
(c) Chitin and pectin
(4)? -glucoronic acid and N-acetylgalactosamine
Ans (b)

3. In their experiment to prove that DNA is the, genetic material, which one of the following isotopes was used by Hershey and Chase to label bacteriophages?
(a) ¹⁴ C
(b) ¹⁵ N
(c) ³² p
(d) ³ H
Ans. (c)
11. In the context of DNA cloning, consider the following:
A. Bacteriophages
B. Bacterial artificial chromosomes
C. Yeast artificial chromosomes
Which of the above is/are cloning vectors?
(a)A only
(b)A and B
(c)B and C
(d)A,B and C
Ans. (d)
4. In the context of genetic code, consider the following statements:
A. Although an amino acid may have two or more codons, each codon specifies only one amino acid.
B. Amino acid codons are identical in human beings, tobacco plants and viruses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans:(b)
5. In protein synthesis in E. coli. When each amino acid is attached to a specific to RNA at the expense of ATP energy, the ion of which one of the following elements is used?
(a) Calcium
(b) Copper
(c) Magnesium
(d) Zinc
Ans. (c)
6. With reference to DNA structure as proposed by Watson and Crick, consider the following statements:
A.The double helix is right-handed.
B. The bases of the two polynucleotides (of differentstrands) are attracted to each other by phosphodiester bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c)Both Aand B
(d)Neither A nor B
Ans. (d)
7. With reference to the structure of DNA, consider the following statements:
A. In the sugar component of DNA, the carbon of the carbonyl group occurring at one end of the chain form is numbered 1
B. The nitrogen bases are attached to the 5’- carbon of the sugar.
Which of the statements  given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (d)
8. Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra
(a) 11 ^th chromosome
(b)18 ^th chromosome
(c) 21 ^st chromosome
(d) 22 ^nd chromosome
Ans. (c)
9. In the context of mutations in genetic material, which of the following is an intercalating agent?
(a) Colchicine
(b) Ethidium bromide
(c) 5-bromouracil
(d) Rifampicin
Ann. (b)
10/The structure of which one of the following inhibitors or protein synthesis is very similar to 3’ end of an aminoacyl tRNA?
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Cycloheximide
(c) Puromycin
(d) Streptomycin
Ans. (c)

11. What is the initiation codon in translation?
(a) UGA
(b) UAG
(c) UAA
(d) AUG
Ann. (d)
12.Which one of the following is the role of a subunit of
RNA polymerase?
(a) Bringing the core enzyme near to the DNA
(b) Binding the ribonucleotides prior to RNA synthesis
(c) Recognition of the promotor site
(d) Catalyzing ribonucleotide joining to the growing RNA chain
Ans. (c)
13. Who of the following is associated with the discovery of
bacterial transformation?
(a) Erwin Chargaff
(b) Frederick Griffith
(c) Robert Koch
(d) Thomas Hunt Morgan
Ans. (b)
14 Consider The following statements:
A. The molecular weight of RNA polymerase is greater than that of DNA polymerase-I
B. RNA polymerase starts chains without primer whereas DNA polymerase-I starts chains with primer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (c)
15. For every molecule of NADH ₂ that is oxidized via the electron transport system, what is the number of ATPs formed?
(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d) 5
Ant (c)
16. Consider the following:
A. Glycine
B. Histamine
C. Nitric oxide
Which of the above is/are neurotransmitters?
(a)A and Bonly
(b)B only
(c)A and C only
(d)A,B and C
Ans. (d)
17. The hormones secreted by the hypothalamus in the region of median eminence are carried to adenohypophysis by which one of the following?
(a) Hypophyseal stalk
(b) Hypophyseat portal system
(c) Pituitary stalk
(d) Neurohypophysis
Ans (b)
18. Which one of the following vitamins has a role in the formation of collagen?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin-B2
(c) Vitamin-C
(d) Vitamin-E
Ans (c)
19 Consider the following vitamins
A. Vitamin-A
B. Vitamin-D
C Vitamin-E
Which of the above is/are made up of isoprene units ?
(a) A and B only
(b) B only
(c)A and C only
(d)A,B and C
Ans. (c)
20. Among the following conversions in glycolysis, where NADH+H ⁺ produced?
(a) Fructose 6-phosphate to fructose, 1, 6
(b) Fructose 1 ,6-biphosphate to glyceraldehyde. 3-phosphate
(c) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to 1, 3-biphosphoglycerate
(d) 1, 3-biphosphoglycerate to 3- phosphoglycerate.
Ans. (c)
21. For each acetyl Co-A oxidized by the citric acid cycle, what is the energy gain?
(a) Two molecules of NADH, one FADH ₂ and one nucleoside triphosphate
(b) Three molecules of NADH, one FADH ₂ and one nucleoside triphosphate
(c) Two molecules of NAIDH, one FADH ₂ and two nucleoside triphosphate
(d) Three molecules of NAPH, one FADH ₂ and two nucleoside triphosphate
Ans. (b)
22. Which one of the following causes tetany in young individuals?
(a) Hypoparathyroidism
(b) Hyperparathyroidism
(c) Hypothyroidism
(d) Hyperthyroidism
Arts. (a)
23. Consider the following statements:
A. The oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate catalyzed by pyruvate-dehydrogenase complex is a reversible oxidation process.
B. Four different vitamins required in human nutrition are components of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans (b)
24. Consider the following statements:
A. In carbohydrate metabolism, fructose 1, 6 is convened to fatty acids via acetyl Co-A + EBC 322.
B. The liver converts fatty acids to cholesterol IBC 334 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (a)
25. Which one of the following is a steroid hormone?
(a) Calcitonin
(b) Cortisol
(c) Glucagon
(d) Somatostatin
Ans. (b)
26. What is the role of oxygen in cellular respiration?
(a) It is the final electron acceptor in the respiratory. chain
(b) It combines with glucose and oxidises it
(c) It clears lactic acid load
(d) It is utilized in the conversion step of AID? to ATP
Ans. (a)
27. Lactate produced by glycolysis in hypoxic muscle cells is transported via the blood to the liver. The lactose is convened to glucose and then released into the blood.
What is this process called?
(a) HMP-Shunt
(b) Cori cycle
(c) Omithine cycle
(d) Glucose-alanine cycle
Ans. (b)
28. Consider the following statements
A. The double bonds of polyunsaturated fatty acids are almost never conjugated but are separated by
methylene group.
B. In nearly all naturally occurring unsaturated fatty acids.. The double bonds are in the cis configuration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (c)
29. In the context of biological oxidation reduction reactions, consider the following enzymes:
A. Acyl Co-A dehydrogenase
B. Glycerol 3-phosphate dehydrogenase
C. Succonate dehydrogenase
Which of the above enzymes employ flavin nucleotide coenzymes?
(a) A only
(b) B and C only
(c) C only
(d) A, B and C
Ans.(d)
30. In the context of comparative study of excretionary system of vertebrates, which one of the following is a special device for water conservation in mammals?
(a) Bowman’s capsule
(b) Proximal convoluted tubule
(c) Loop of Henle
(d) Collecting duct
Ans. (c)
31. Consider the following statements:
A. All enzymes require an additional chemical component called cofactor or coenzyme for their catalytic function.
B. The cofactor for pyruvate kinase is K ⁺
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (b)
32. The Michaelis constant is a measure of which one of the following?
(a) Concentration of the enzyme
(b) Catalytic efficiency of the enzyme
(c) Thermo-stability of the enzyme
(d) Affinity of the enzyme for its substrate
Ans. (d)
33. Which one of the following is a conjugated protein?
(a)?-d Glucosamine
(b) Plastocyanin
(c) Amylopectin
(d) Chitin
Ans. (b)
34. Which one of the following does not happen when the  sympathetic nervous system is strongly activated?
(a) Increased heart beat
(b)Secretion of sweat
( c) Constriction of pupils
(d) Decreased. secretion
35. What are the lateral line neuromasts?
(a) Olfactoreceptors
(b) Photoreceptors
(c) Rheoreceptors
(d) Gustatoreceptors
Ans. (c)
36. Consider the following statements:
A. Prosthetic groups in enzymes function as electron acceptors.
B. Prosthetic groups bind to the enzyme always by ionic bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (b)
37. Consider the following statements:
A. Sus has deciduate placenta.
B. Talpa has non-deciduate placenta.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)A only
(b)B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (d)
38. Which one of the following acts as a precocious urinary bladder in which nitrogenous waste accumulates during the development of chick?
(a) Amnion
(b) Allantois -
(c) Somatopleure
(d) Yolk sac
Ans. (b)
39. With reference to gastrulation in chick, consider the following statements:
A. In the gastrulation of chick, there is neither invagination nor archenteron.
B. The place of origin of endoderm is anterior part of the blasto4erm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans:(d)
40. With reference to the embryonic development
vertebrates, consider the following statements:
A. In the chick, the amnion and chorion have no blood vessels.
B. There is almost no yolk in mammalian eggs therefore, their embryos have no yolk sac.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)A only
(b)B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (d)
41. With reference to sperms and ova of vertebrates, consider the following statements : -
A. In the spermatozoan, the middle piece containing nucleus and the tail contains mitochondrion.
B. The mature ovum contains a centriole which later helps the zygote in its division. -
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)A only
(b)B only
(c) Both A and B
(d)Neither A for B
Ans. (b)
42. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Cortical reaction of egg during fertilization is necessary to
(a) inhibit polyspermy and solubilize the egg membranes
(b) inhibit polyspermy and harden the egg membranes
(c) solitbilize the egg membranes
(d) allow polyspermy and harden the egg membranes
Ans. (b)
43. In the context of the evolution of man, who of the following left evidence of artistic ability in the form of drawings
paintings on the walls of caves?
(a) Cro-magnon man
(b) Java-ape man
(c) Neanderthal man
(d) Peking man
Ans. (a)
44 Considel’ the following geological time periods:
A. Cambrian
B. Jurassic
C. Permian
U. Silurian
Which one of the following is. the corre t chronological
sequence of the above geological time periods?
(a) A—U–C—-B
(b) A—D—-B—-C
(c) D- A -C -B
(d) U—C—-A—-B
45. In the modem horse the weight of the body is sustained by which of the following?
(a) Second, third and fourth digits
(b) Third and fourth digits only
(c) Third digit only
(d) Second digit only
Ans. (c)
46. In which one of the following geological periods did the first bird appear?
(a) PerMian
(b) Triassic
(c) Jurassic
(d) Cretaceous
Ans. (c)
47. Which one of the following statements is not correct:
(a) lchthyosaurus had a dorsal fin that was supported by bone.
(b) Ichthyosaurus had both fore limbs and hind limbs
(c) Jchthyosaurus gave birth to living young ones.,.
(d) Ichthyosaumus became extinct by the end of cretaceous period
Ans. (c)
48. Consider the following statements; -
A. In prairie ecosystem, 60 to 90 percent of the net primary productivity and 90 percent of secondary productivity occur in the soil.
B. In desert ecosystems, micro-arthropods have a very important role in litter decomposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (c)
49. With reference to estuary as ecosystem, consider the following statements:
A. Estuaries are characteristically more productive than the adjacent river or sea.
B. The higher the fluctuation of water level in the estuary, the higher is its productivity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (b)
50. A sucker fish attached to the belly of a shark gets a free ride and feeds on the left-overs of shark. This is an example of which one of the following?
(a) Mutualism
(b) Proto-cooperation
(c) Commensalism
(d) Parasitism
Ans. (c)

UGC NET MANAGEMENT PREVIOUS SOLVED PAPER

1. In demand forecasting important method used in trend projection is:
(a) Scientific Method
(b) Box-Jenkins Method
(c) Delphi Method
(d) Logistics Method
Ans. (b)
2. The term job satisfaction refers to:
(a) A collection of feelings that an individual has towards his/her job.
(b) The degree to which an individual identifies himself/herself with job.
(c) The degree to which an individual identifies himself/herself with the, organization.
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a)
3. The following are the three components of creativity:
(a) Expertise, creativity skills and task motivation
(b) Expertise, innovation and rationality
(c) Expertise, rationality and relevance
(d) Expertise, novelty and performance
Ans. (b)
4. The factor theory propounded by:
(a) Fredrick Hertzberg
(b) David McClellanel
(c) Mc Cardhy
(d) Philip Rotler
Ans. (a)
5. ‘Grape Wine’ is the term used in relation to:
(a) Formal Communication
(b) Informal Communication
(c) Horizontal Communication
(d) Vertical Communication
Ans. (b)
6. Mutual cooperation and net working is:
(a) Win-win strategy
(b) Networking strategy
(c) Franchise strategy
(d) Competitive strategy
Ans. (a)
7. A list of Jobs duties, responsibilities, reporting relationships, and working conditions is called:
(a) Job enhancement
(b) Job specification
(c) Job description
(d) Job enlargement
Ans. (c)
8. The use of predesigned set of questions used in an interview process leads to:
(a) Behavioural interview
(b) Situational interview
(c) Non-directional interview
(d) Structured interview
Ans. (d)
9. One of the following is training provided to enhance decision making skills:
(a) On the job training
(b) Behavioural modeling
(c) Management games
(d) Action learning
Ans. (c)
10. Dramatic reduction of manpower is called:
(a) Termination
(b) Retrenchment
(c) Down sizing
(d) Right sizing
Ans. (b)
11. Monitoring employees through a preplanned series of position is called:
(a) Promotion
(b) Succession planning
(c) Job reporting
(d) Job rotation
Ans. (b)
12. A situation where management is unable to provide employment due to non-availability of work is called:
(a) Lock out
(b) Lay off
(c) Termination
(d) Closure
Ans. (b)
13. The basic goal of financial management is:
(a) Maximizing the profit
(b) Maximizing shareholders’ wealth n the long run
(c) Maximizing the rate of dividend
(d) Minimizing the business risk.
Ans. (a)
14. The principal value of a bond is called:
(a) Coupon rate
(b) Par value
(c) Maturity value
(d) Market value
Ans. (b)
15. Trade credit is a:
(a) Negotiated source of finance
(b) Hybrid source of finance
(c) Spontaneous source of finance
(d) Source of credit from the owners of the business
Ans. (a)
16. IRR is the rate of interest:
(a) Equal to the cost of capital of the proposal
(b) Prevailing rate interest in the market
(c) Paid on the bonds by the firm
(d) That makes the NPV of capital proposal almost zero
Ans. (d)
17. Mutually exclusive investment proposals are these:
(a) Wherein the acceptance of one proposal leads to rejection of all other proposals
(b) That requires special sources of financing
(c) That has unique features
(d) The reduce the total risk complexion of the firm
Ans. (a)
18. The technique used for classifying inventory according to the value of usage is called:
(a) XYZ Analysis
(b) DCF Analysis
(c) ABC Analysis
(d) DEF Analysis
Ans. (a)
19. When a consumer derives more satisfaction from a product/service than his expectation, it is known as:
(a) Consumer satisfaction
(b) Consumer delight
(c) Consumer dazzling
(d) Consumer dissatisfaction
Ans. (b)
20. Classical conditioning is associated with:
(a) Repetition
(b) Generalization
(c) Discrimination
(d) All
Ans. (a)
21. The process selecting, organizing and interpreting or attaining meaning to events happening in the environment is called:
(a) Perception
(b) Attitude
(c) Personality
(d) Learning
Ans. (a)
22. Under which concept of marketing customer remains focused?
(a) Marketing
(b) Production
(c) Product
(d) Selling
Ans. (a)
23. Segmentation of consumers based on factors like climatic conditions and regions are known as:
(a) Demographic Segmentation
(b) Cultural Segmentation
(c) Geographic Segmentation
(d) Administrative Segmentation
Ans. (c)
24. Which city is more favourable for selling electric blankets?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Chennai
(c) Shillong
(d) Pune
Ans. (c)
25. Decision on plant layout and location are concerned with:
(a) System design
(b) System operations
(c) System control
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
26. Production system which enables for maximizing the scale advantage is:
(a) Flow type
(b) Intermittent type
(c) Batch type
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
27. Which of the following is the objective of production scheduling?
(a) Where to start the operation
(b) When to start the operation
(c) How to start the operation
(d) When to start as well as stop the operation
Ans. (d)
28. SQC requires determination of:
(a) Quality tolerance limit
(b) Quantity measurement
(c) Production load time
(d) Inventory carrying cost
Ans. (a)
29. AQL (Acceptable Quality Level) is:
(a) Maximum number of detective that the consumers will accept
(b) Fraction detective (f) that the user considers acceptable
(c) Fraction detective (f) that the producer considers acceptable
(d) Maximum number of detectives that the producer will allow
Ans. (b)
30. The probability of drawing a ‘Spade’ from a well shuffled packet of cards is:
(a) 1/52
(b) 4/52
(c) 1/4
(d) 2/3
Ans. (b)
31. If both the regression coefficients are negative, the correlation coefficient would be:
(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) Zero
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
32. Chi-square distribution is:
(a) Continuous
(b) Multimodel
(c) Symmetrical referred
(d) Nome of the above
Ans. (a)
33. Sick enterprise is referred to:
(a) World Bank
(b) SIDBI
(c) RBI
(d) BIFR
Ans. (d)
34. Which of the following is the cause of sickness of an enterprise?
(a) Lack of adequate capital
(b) Lack of demand for the products
(c) Lack of competition
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
35. Which one of the following is not the social responsibility of business?
(a) Adopting villages for development
(b) Setting up educational institutes
(c) Opening research and development department
(d) Construction of temples
Ans. (d)
36. Which o of the following is not related to Business Ethics?
(a) Environmental ethics
(b) Social responsibility of business
(c) Profiteering
(d) Ecological consciousness
Ans. (c)
37. Ethical values are derived from:
(a) Corporate objectives
(b) Organizational culture
(c) The Bible, the Koran and the Geeta
(d) Corporative philosophy
Ans. (d)
38. The Cobb-Douglass Production Function is often used as:
(a) Q =A K ^a L^b
(b) Q =AK ^a L ^1-b
(c) log Q = a log k = log c
(d) Q = A b ^a –L ^a
Ans. (a)
39. Swimming price for a new product is:
(a) Low initial price
(b) Average price
(c) High initial price
(d) Moderate price
Ans. (c)
40. Under monopoly market structure, the degree
of freedom is pricing decision is:
(a) Very low
(b) Quite good
(c) Very high
(d) Zero
Ans. (b)
41. Capital budgeting decision are generally:
(a) Irreversible
(c) Irrevocable
(b) Reversible
(d) Revocable
Ans. (a)
42. Which one is not the prerequisite of a perfect market?
(a) Existence of large number of buyers and sellers in the market
(b) Free flow of market information among the players
(c) Free entry and free exit
(d) Intervention of the Government.
Ans. (d)
43. The term emotion refers to:
(a) A broad range of feelings that a person experiences
(b) A broad and intense feeling that is directed at someone or something
(c) A broad range of feelings in the form of anger that a person experiences
(d) None bf the above
Ans. (b)
44. PERT stands for
(a) Production Estimation & Research Technique
(b) Project Evaluation and Review Technique
(c) Project Estimation & Research Technique
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
45. Mass communication tools available to marketers include:
(a) Advertising
(b) Sales promotion
(c) Public relations
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
46. Distribution channel aims of moving products from producer to:
(a) Ultimate consumer
(b) Retailers
(c) Stockists
(d) Brokers
Ans. (a)
47. Minimum wages are fixed by:
(a) Trade Unions
(b) Employees
(c) State Governments
(d) Court of law
Ans. (c)
48. Demand curve under monopolistic competition is:
(a) Downward sloping and flat
(b) Downward sloping and steep
(c) Parallel to ‘X’ axis
(d) Parallel to ‘Y’ axis
Ans. (a)
49. If the demand curve is rectangular hyperbola, the elasticity is:
(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Infinity
(d) Less than one
Ans. (a)
50. ‘Supply creates its own demand’ is known as:
(a) Keyresian law
(b) Say’s law
(c) Veblen law
(d) Griffins law
Ans. (b)

UGC NET ENGLISH PREVIOUS SOLVED PAPER

Directions—(Q. 1-4): In these questions some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and indicate it corresponding to the appropriate letter (A. B. C). If there is no error indicate corresponding to letter (D).
1. Good heavens! / (A)How has she /(B)grown / (C)No error/ (D)
Ans. (B)
2. Neither of the two children /(A)said their prayer / (B)before going to bed / (C)No error/ (D)
Ans. (B)
3. I sat down opposite him / (A)and produced / (B)the packet of cigarettes / (C)No error/ (D)
Ans. (D)
3. The doctor advised Mr. Murugan that / (A)because of his severe cramps / (B)he should lay in the bed for a few days / (C)No error/ (D)
Ans. (A)
4. The table’s legs / (A)have been / (B)elaborately carved / (C)No error/ (D)
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 5—9): In these questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given bold/capital word and indicate the correct alternative.
5. EXCEPTIONAL
(A) Great
(B) Occasional
(C) Common
(D) Absorbing
Ans. (C)
6. SHIMMERING
(A) Gloomy
(B) Glimmering
(C) Refreshing
(D) Repining
Ans. (A)
7. TAKES OFF
(A) Travels
(B) Falls
(C) Explodes
(D) Lands
Ans. (D)
8. NIGGARDLY
(A) Hastily
(B) Lavishly
(C) Likely
(D) Gorgeously
Ans. (B)
9. N’IELODIOUS
(A) Harmonious
(B) Tuneless
(C) Odious
(D) Mellifluous
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 10-14): In the following questions, four words are given in each question out of which only one word is wrongly spelt. Find the word and indicate the correct response.
10. (A) Embankment
(B) Deliberately
(C) Preceding
(D) Proleferous
Ans. (D)
11.
(A) Representation
(C) Amplification
(B) Verification
(D) Liberalisetion
Ans. (D)
12. (A) Postar
(B) Pastor
(C) Posture
(D) Pasture
Ans. (A)
13. (A) Agreeablly
(B) Cruelly
(C) Doubtfully
(D) Fatally
Ans. (A)
14. (A) Nomenclature
(B) Non-interfereance
(C) Nonchalant
(D) Non-commissioned
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 15—19): In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the bold or given idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the bold or given idiom/phrase and indicate the correct sequence.
15. We wanted to give Rita a surprise party but John let the cat out of the bag.
(A) spoilt the party with a cat
(B) gave her a party himself
(C) told her about it unintentionally
(D) prevented her from attending it
Ans. (C)
16. The carefully worked-out plan fell through because of an unexpected even
(A) came out successfully
(B) had a step fall
(C) was shattered
(D) failed
Ans. (D)
17. He has too many irons in the fire.
(A) is engaged in too many enterprises at the same time
(B) has several problems
(C) has many ideas in his head
(D) has a fire burning constantly in his house
Ans. (A)
18. The Earl of Leicester threw down the glove.
(A) accepted defeat
(B) rejected the prize
(C) resorted to wrong tactics
(D) gave a challenge
Ans. (D)
19. Ravi fought to the bitter end.
(A) fought to the last point of enemy’s position
(B) died fighting
(C) carried on a contest regardless of the consequences
(D) fought a losing battle
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q 20-24): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence indicate the correct sequence.
20. That which cannot be captured—
(A) Untakable
(B) Ungrippable
(C) Impregnable
(D) Slippery
Ans. (D)
21. One who breaks the law —
(A) Aggressor
(B) Politician
(C) Transgressor
(D) Pedestrian
Ans. (C)
22. Study of insects is—
(A) Etymology
(B) Entomology
(C) Ecology
(D) Embryology
Ans. (B)
23. Careful in the spending of money, time etc.—
(A) Punctual
(B) Economical
(C) Miserly
(D) Calculative
Ans. (B)
24. Reproducing or memorizing word for word—
(A) Verbatim
(B) Verbose
(C) Verbiage
(D) Verbalism
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 25—29) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active/ Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which BEST EXPRESSES the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and indicate the correct sequence.
25. Smoke and flames engulfed the area and made rescue operations difficult.
(A) The area was engulfed in smoke and flames and made rescue operations difficult
(B) The area was engulfed in smoke and flames making rescue operations difficult
(C) The area had been engulfed in smoke and flames and made rescue operations difficult
(D) The area was engulfed in smoke and flames and rescue operations were made difficult
Ans. (D)
26. He asked me to finish the work in time.
(A) I was asked that I should finish the work in time
(B) He asked me that I should finish the work in time
(C) I was asked to finish the work in time
(D) I was asked to finish the work in time by him
Ans. (D)
27. Quinine tastes bitter.
(A) Quinine is bitter when it is tasted
(B) Quinine is bitter tasted
(C) The taste of quinine is bitter
(D) Quinine is tasted bitter
Ans. (B)
28. The vintage cars hold a special place in the hearts of their owners.
(A) A special place in the hearts of the vintage car owners is held by them
(B) A special place was held by the vintage cars in the hearts of their owners
(C) A special place is held by the vintage cars in the hearts of their owners
(D) A special place is being held by the vintage cars in the hearts of their owners
Ans. (C)
29. What amused you?
(A) What you are made to amuse by?
(B) By what are you being amused?
(C) By what were you amused?
(D) By what have you been amused?
Ans. (C)
Directions— (Q. 30?34) In the following questions a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part of A, B and C which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is ‘D’. Choose the correct alternative.
30. She left the room feeling contrite.
(A) sorry for what she had done
(B) rather ill
(C) extremely irritated
(D) No improvement
Ans. (A)
31. The transport workers have organised a strike asking for more salary.
(A) demanding
(B) begging
(C) requesting
(D) No improvement
Ans. (A)
32. The only way to solve the racial problem is by education.
(A) because of
(B) thanks to
(C) on account of
(D) No improvement
Ans. (D)
33. He may be poor now but he appears to be rich.
(A) to seem rich
(B) rich to be
(C) to have been rich
(D) No improvement
Ans. (C)
34. The suspected couple was taken away from the airport through a side entrance to the police station for interrogation.
(A) whisked
(B) rushed
(C) guided
(D) No improvement
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 35—39): In the following questions the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate the correct response.
35. 1. I think the essence of wisdom is emancipation as far as possible from the tyranny of the here and the now.
P. If any one could, he would hardly he able to remain alive
Q. But it is possible to make continual approach towards impartiality
R. No one can view the world with complete impartiality.
S. This is of course a matter of degree.
6. It is this approach towards impartiality that constitutes growth in wisdom.
(A) QRSP
(B) RQPS
(C) SRPQ
(D) PRSQ
Ans. (C)
36. 1. There are many roads into the world of books, but the way of fiction is probably the most common.
P. Then too the appeal of the story, whether told as poem, play, history, biography, or novel is primitive and strong.
Q. The reason is plain.
R. They are to us what epic poetry was to the Greeks and Romans, what the stage was to the Elizabethans.
S. The novel and the short story come closer to the experience of the modern reader than any other form of contemporary writing.
6. Mankind’s delight in stories is as timeless and universal as the art of the story teller.
(A) QSRP
(B) SRPQ
(C) RSQP
(D) PRSQ
Ans. (A)
37. 1. But at that moment I glanced round at the crowd that had followed me.
P. It was an immense crowd, two thousand at the least and growing every minute.
Q. They were watching me as they would watch a conjurer about to perform a trick.
R. I looked at the sea of yellow faces above the garish clothes — faces all happy and excited over his bit of fun, all certain that the elephant was going to he shot.
S. It blocked the road for a long distance on either side.
6. They did not like me, but with the magical rifle in my hands, I was momentarily worth watching.
(A) RPQS
(B) QSRP
(C) SRPQ
(D) PSRQ
Ans. (D)
38. 1. Venice is a strange and beautiful city in the north of Italy.
P. There are about four hundred old stone bridges joining the islands of Venice.
Q. In this city there are no motor-cars, no horses and no buses.
R. These small islands are near one another.
S. It is not one island but a hundred and seventeen islands.
6. This is because Venice has no streets.
(A) PQRS
(B) RSPQ
(C) SRPQ
(D) PSQR
Ans. (C)
39. I. Nehru spent most part of his childhood in studies.
P. He rushed back to India and led an active political life joining hands with Gandhi.
Q. His studies went on uninterrupted abroad until he received a call from India.
R. He went to Cambridge to study.
S. But now and then, he could not help listening to political discussions in his house.
6. Till the end of his career, he made Gandhi his political master.
(A) RSQP
(B) SRQP
(C) PQRS
(D) SRPQ
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 40—43): In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate and suitable word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and choose the correct alternative.
40. The streets are lighted …… electricity.
(A) with
(B) by
(C) on
(D) in
Ans. (A)
41. The chairman, as well as the members, ….. to blame for this misfortune.
(A) are
(B) were
(C) is
(D) has
Ans. (C)
42. My friends fail to see why I should ride the ….. horse just because I have won a prize.
(A) great
(B) good
(C) big
(D) high
Ans. (B)
43. She feared that she ……
(A) will fail
(B) may fail
(C) might have fail
(D) would fail
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 44—480): Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and indicate the correct answer.
‘The beauty of the Japanese landscape is that it conveys philosophical messages through each feature. The use of curving pathways rather than straight lines, for instance. This feature springs from the belief that only evil travels in straight lines, good forces tend to wander. Then, odd numbers of plants and trees are used in these gardens because these numbers are considered auspicious. Even the plants used are symbolic. For example, the cyprus represents longevity and the bamboo symbolises abundance,’ says Sadhana Roy Choudhary.
The Japan, nature is said to be so closely intertwined with human life that parents actually plant a sapling in their garden when a child is born in the family, letting the growth of the child coincide with the growth of the plant.
44. The Japanese pathways tend to be—
(A) symbolic
(B) beautiful
(C) curved
(D) straight
Ans. (C)
45. They prefer curving pathways because—
(A) they are inauspicious
(B) they can walk easily
(C) they stumble over straight ones
(D) good spirits walk on them
Ans. (D)
46. ‘Abundance’ means—
(A) long life
(B) happiness
(C) plenty
(D) permanent
Ans. (C)
47. The Japanese parents plant a sapling at the time of birth of a child because—
(A) it is auspicious to plant a sapling
(B) it is closely associated with the growth of the child
(C) it gives longevity to the child
(D) it gives happiness to the child
Ans. (B)
48. According to the passage the Japanese are—
(A) superstitious
(B) philosophical
(C) lovers of nature
(D) loves of numerology
Ans. (B)

UGC NET ZOOLOGY PREVIOUS SOLVED PAPER

1. The approximate number of species of reptiles describe so far is
(a) 26,500
(b) 18,200
(c) 6,300
(d) 4,100
Ans. (c)
2. The ‘Biological clock’ in higher vertebrates is regulated by
(a) The pituitary gland
(b) Cerebral cortex
(c) Supra-chiasmatic nucleus in hypothalamus
(d) Thymus
Ans. (c)
3. Which one of the following statements about circadian rhythm is correct?
(a) Circadian rhythm, dependent on endogenous clock, is restricted to birds and mammals
(b) An animal’s circadian rhythm has a period of exact 24 hours
(c) The period of circadian rhythm is not exactly 24 hours
(d) Circadian rhythm is necessary because earth is tilted on its axis
Ans. (a)
4. Consider the following statements
(1) The energy flow in an ecosystem results in entropy.
(2) In prairie ecosystems, 90 per cent of the secondary productivity occurs in the soil.
(3) The detritus chain is of greater importance in energy flow in many ecosystem than, are her bivorous/canivorous/omnivorous grazing chains.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) l and 3
Ans. (c)
5. Changes in the body form of some planktonic animals with seasonal change in temperature are grouped under
(a) anamorphous
(b) cyclomorphosis
(c) metamorphosis
(d) heteromorphosis
Ans. (b)
6. The lowest temperature at which organisms can live indefinitely is known as
(a) minimum survival temperature
(b) minimum effective temperature
(c) minimum critical temperature
(d) incipient lethal low temperature
Ans. (c)
7. Which one of the following ecological pyramids can never be inverted?
(a) Pyramid of number
(b) Pyramid of size
(c) Pyramid of biomass
(d) Pyramid of energy
Ans. (d)
8. Which one of the following statements is not correct pertaining to changes in the abiotic environment?
(a) Annual changes in temperature in aquatic environments are more marked in temperate fresh water climates then in other climates
(b) Temperature is the major factor in the creation of ocean currents and air currents
(c) At global level, human activities contribute nine times more particulate matter or aerosols into the air than do natural processes
(d) In the troposphere, photo oxidation of hydrocarbons in the presence of nitrogen oxides produces ozone
Ans. (d)
9. Which one of the following is a correct set of endangered species of India?
(a) Great Indian bustard, Musk deer, Asiatic lion, Royal Bengal tiger
(b) Kashmir stag, Cheetal, Blue bull, Great Indian bustard
(c) Snow leopard, Swamp deer, Free ranging rhesus monkey, Hanuman Langur
(d) Lion-tailed macaque, Blue bull, Hanuman Langur, Cheetal
Ans. (a)
10. Generally the largest animals are found in aquatic habitat because
(a) there is more food available
(b) gravity effects are minimized by buoyancy
(c) temperature fluctuation is less drastic
(d) it is easier to maintain homeostasis
Ans. No option is correct.
11. With regard to environmental pollution, consider the following statements:
(a) Organic phosphates are degradable chemical insecticides
(b) Chlorinated hydrocarbons depress photosynthesis of marine phytoplankton but have no adverse effect on aquatic animals
(c) The atmospheric pollutant ozone causes respiratory distress in man but has no adverse effects on plants
(d) Sulphur dioxide (SO2) in air adsorbs on particulate pollutants
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) l and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
12. Which group of organisms serves as the best indicators of pollution in a stream?
(a) Plankton
(b) Neuston
(c) Benthos
(d) Nekton
Ans. (a)
13. In which ecosystem is the detritus pathway most important in energy movement through trophic levels?
(a) Rain forest
(b) Lakes
(c) Grassland
(d) Oceans
Ans. (d)
14. Removal of the keystone predator from a community will result in
(a) dominance of an alternate predator
(b) general decline in species diversity
(c) increases in prey population densities
(d) decrease in primary productivity
Ans. (b)
15. One of the major adaptive features of the desert animals is
(a) production of metabolic water
(b) conservation of metabolic water
(c) reduced metabolic activity
(d) reduced excretion
Ans. (b)
16. In India, the lion-tailed macaque is found only in
(a) Bandipur Biosphere Reserve
(b) Eastern Ghats
(c) Guindy National Park
(d) Western Ghats
Ans. (b) Explanation
17. The acceptable concept of ecological niche is that is represent the
(a) trophic status of a species in a community
(b) unique microhabitat of a species
(c) sum of total species use of biotic and abiotic sources of the environment
(d) unique combination of the trophic status and the microhabitat of a species
Ans. (d)
18. Consider the following statements in the context of ecosystem
(a) radiant energy reaching the surface of earth on a clear day is about 2% ultraviolet, 74% visible light and the rest in infrared
(b) visible radiation is least attenuated during its passage through dense cloud cover and water
(c) thermal radiation is absorbed by biomass to a greater degree than is solar radiation
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
19. The community in which the photosynthesis/respiration (P/R) ratio is generally more than 1 is
(a) fertile rice field
(b) polluted stream
(c) coral reefs
(d) swamps
Ans. (d)
20. Consider the following statements
1. The ecological pyramid of number is always upright.
2. The ecological pyramid of biomass can be upright or inverted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
21. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?
(a) Oceans, Lakes, Grass1ands, Mangroves
(b) Mangroves, Oceans, Grasslands, Lakes
(c) Mangroves, Grasslands, Lakes, Oceans
(d) Oceans, Mangroves, Lakes, Grasslands
Ans. (c)
22. Consider the following types of animals
1. Crustaceans
2. Chaetognaths
Which of the above is/are of marine Zooplankton?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
23. In the logistic model of population growth, unlike in the exponential growth model
(a) there is a limit to the maximum densities attained
(b) growth rates decrease with increasing population
(c) death rates are lower than birth rates
(d) growth rate is unaffected by population size
Ans. (b)
24. Which wild life reserve in India is popularly known as Floating National Park?
(a) Keibul Lamjo National Park
(b) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
(c) Chilka Lake Sanctuary
(d) Nal Sarovar Sanctuary
Ans. (c)
25. The term ‘biotic potential’ as coined by Chapman means the
(a) inherent property of an organism to reproduce to survive
(b) capacity of an individual organism to tolerate the stress
(c) adaptive potential of an individual organism in a changing climate
(d) potentiality of an organism to increases its biomass when kept under the favorable conditions
Ans. (a)
26. Consider the following:
1. Choriotis nigriceps
2. Gavialis gangeticus
Which of the above animals is/are ‘threatened species’?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
27. Which among the following although not closely related taxonomically, occupy the overlapping niche when present in the grassland ecosystems?
(a) Cow, tiger and elephant
(b) Antelopes, lion and zebra
(c) Kangaroo, bison and cow
(d) Kangaroo rat and monkey
Ans. (c)
28. Match list-I (Zone) with list-II (feature) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Zone) (Feature)
A. Neretic zone 1. Total darkness
B. Littoral zone 2. depth of 500-600 ft.
C. Abyssal zone 3. Region between the high and low tides
D. Bathyal zone 4. Depths 01600-5000 ft.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (c)
29. Consider the following statements:
1. Under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, only Central Government is empowered to declare any area in India as a Sanctuary or a National Park.
2. Protection of wild animals is included in the concurrent list in the constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
30. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction between
(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature
(d) High concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening
Ans. (a)
31. Which of the following soak most of the atmospheric CO2?
(a) Cultivated lands
(b) Bacteria
(c) Forests
(d) Oceans
Ans. (d)
32. Consider the following regions
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Western Ghats
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. North Eastern India
5. West Bengal
In which of the above regions are tropical rain forests found?
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (a)
33. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Wildlife Sanctuary State
(a) Eturnagarma Tamil Nadu
(b) Bhagavan Mahavir Goa
(c) Nandini Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Narayan Sarovar Gujarat
Ans. (a)
34. Consider the following statements
1. The Sambar is the largest of all Indian deer.
2. The biggest bovid of India is the gaur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
35. Consider the following statements:
1. The Grizzled Giant Squirrel (Ratufa macroura) is found in the forest hill ranges of West and North India.
2. At present, there are no flying squirrels in Indian wildlife.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
36. The lakes with a reduced Profundal zone and a highly productive littoral and sub littoral zones are termed as
(a) Oligotrophic
(b) Dystrophic
(c) Eutrophic
(d) Mesotrophic
Airs. (c)
37. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?
(a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
(b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
(d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
Ans. (c)
38. The major component of ‘biological clock’ in higher vertebrates is
(a) pituitary gland
(b) cerebral cortex
(c) hypothalamus
(d) medulla oblongata
Ans. (a)
39. Consider the following Indian Fauna
1. Elephas maximus
2. Equus hemionus khur
3. Panthera uncia
Which of the above is/are endangered?
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
40. Amensalism is a type of population interaction in which
(a) both the population are inhibited
(b) one population is benefited and the other inhibited
(c) one population is inhibited and the other unaffected
(d) both the populations are benefited
Ans. (c)
41. Consider the following statements:
1. India is one of the twelve mega-biodiversity countries of the world.
2. The Gulf of Mannar has been recognized on the World Network of Biosphere reserves by UNESCO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
42. ‘Competitive exclusion’ refers to
(a) struggle between two species
(b) vanishing of one species from a habitat
(c) vanishing of all the species from a habitat
(d) one species managing resources in one way and the other in another way
Ans. (d)
43. Golden langur (presbytis geei) is naturally found in which one of the Wildlife Sanctuaries / National Parks?
(a) Periyar
(b) Sariska
(c) Manas
(d) Sesar Gir
Ans. (c)
44. Who of the following has given the Y-shaped two-channel energy flow model consisting of grazing and detritus food chains?
(a) Clements
(b) Hardin
(c) Odum
(d) Tansley
Ans. (c)
45. Similar environment in different continents produce similar type of ecosystems. Species occupying similar ecological niche in such disjunct ecosystems are known as
(a) ecological guilds
(b) ecological equivalents
(c) ecotypes
(d) ecological indicators
Ans. (b)
46. The grazing pathway of energy flow is relatively more important than the detritus pathway in
(a) grassland ecosystem
(b) tropical forest ecosystem
(c) pond ecosystem
(d) marine ecosystem
Ans. (a)
47. A taxon facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild in the immediate future is regarded as
(a) critically endangered
(b) endangered
(c) vulnerable
(d) near threatened
Ans. (a)
48. Consider the following characteristics
1. Loss of hair on the skin
2. Loss of sweat glands
3. Presence of thick blubber
4. Presence of swim bladder
In Cetacea, due to aquatic mode of life, which of the above are the adaptations that have taken place?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (a)
49. The area over which an individual animal roams during the course of its usual daily wandering and in which it spends most of its time is called
(a) nesting territory
(b) home range
(c) mating territory
(d) feeding range
Ans. (a)
50. Which of the following are the unicellular dinoflagellates that live symbiotically with certain corals?
(a) Zooxanthellae
(b) Zoomastigophora
(c) Plasmodiphora
(d) Vampyrella
Ans. (a)

UGC NET SOCIOLOGY PREVIOUS SOLVED PAPER

1. According to Irving Goffman, ‘Asylum’ is an example of which one of the following?
(a) A social system
(b) A hospital
(c) A total institution
(d) A traditional family
Ans. (c)
2. How would you describe the situation where a group of people rejects the prevailing values and norms of society and begins to live differently?
(a) Revolution
(b) Deviant group
(c) Counter-culture
(d) Acculturation
Ans. (c)
3. Printing was first developed in China in the 6th century and slowly spread to rest of the world. This is an example of
(a) Cultural Diffusion
(b) Technological Revolution
(c) Cultural Hegemony
(d) Globalization
Ans. (a)
4. Match list- I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. An area of social living marked by some degree of coherence 1. Institution
B.A large group to which an individual belongs 2. Community
C. A functional configuration of culture pattern 3. Association
D. A group of people organized for one or more purposes 4. Organization
5. Society
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 5 1 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 3 5 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (a)
5. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. The real and ideal culture 1. F. Tonnies
B. Social-progress is not linear but divergent 2. Auguste Comte
C. Essential will and arbitrary will 3. Ralph Linton
D. Law of three stages 4. H. Spencer
5. C.H. Cooley
Code:
A B C D
(a) 5 4 3 2
(b) 3 5 1 4
(c) 5 1 2 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (d)
6. The concept of cultural lag explains that
(a) changes in material culture are very slow.
(b) changes in non-material culture are faster than changes in material culture.
(c) material culture changes faster than non-material culture.
(d) material and non-material cultures, more or less change at the same place.
Ans. (c)
7. The term ‘cultural relativism’ is often contrasted with
(a) cultural pluralism
(b) ethnocentrism
(c) cultural absolutism
(d) cultural vacuum
Ans. (b)
8. Match list- I with list-Il and select the correct answer by using the code given below the list:
List-I List-II
(Author) (Concept)
A. Miller 1. In-group and out-group
B. F. Tonnies 2. Communities and association
C. Sumner 3. Primary and secondary group
D. C.H. Cooley 4. Horizontal and vertical group
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (b)
9. Max Weber believed that sociology should focus .on social action and not on structures because
(a) human individuals were capable of making choices and introducing changes
(b) human beings were action-oriented
(c) he wanted to refute Marxist theory of class
(d) human society is always conflict-ridden
Ans. (b)
10. According to Robert Merton, people who reject both the existing values and the means of achieving them by attempting to reconstruct a new social system are called
(a) Conformists
(b) Innovators
(c) Ritualists
(d) Rebels
Ans. (d)
11. Consider the following statements associated with norms and values.
1. Norms are enforced by positive and negative sanctions.
2. Norms define acceptable behaviour in specific situations.
3. Norms are not formalized by translation into laws.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
12. According to Robert Merton “When there is an acute disjunction between the cultural norms and goals, and the structured capacities of members of the group to act in accord with them”, it leads to a situation of
(a) anomie
(b) cultural degeneration
(c) social mobility
(d) structural transformation
Ans. (a)
13. Theoretically speaking, the concept of ‘social systems’ in
sociology is used by those who work with
(a) critical perspective
(b) functionalist perspective
(c) marxist perspective
(d) phenomenological perspective
Ans. (b)
14. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Detachment of the performer from the role, 1. Role set
he or she is performing
B. Individuals play more roles with 2. Role model
incompatible demands
C. Roles do not exist in isolation each role has associated 3. Role conflict
or complementary roles
D. Behaviour in a role provides a pattern 4. Role insulation
upon which another individual bases his behaviour
5. Role distance
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 5
(b) 5 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 5
(d) 5 1 4 2
Ans. (b)
15. Match list- I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists
List-I List-II
(Work) (Scholar)
A. The rules of sociological method 1. Max Weber.
B. The methodology of the social changes 2. White Leslie
C. The evolution of culture 3. Julian H. Steward
D. The theory of cultural change: 4. Emile Durkheim
methodology of multilinear evolution
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (d)
16. What are the customary, normal, habitual ways of doing things by a group, known as?
(a) Mores
(b) Folkways
(c) Habits
(d) Cultural alternatives
Ans. (b)
17. Who, among the following, made a distinction between ‘retributive laws’ and ‘restitutive laws’?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Michel Foucault
(c) Kingsley Davis
(d) Emile Durkheim
Ans. (d)
18. Children learn the ways of adults, perpetuating the values, norms and social practices of their culture. What is this process called?
(a) Evolution
(b) Natural selection
(c) Social interaction
(d) Socialization
Ans. (d)
19 The melting pot theory is based on which concept?
(a) Assimilation
(c) Segregation
(b) Accommodation
(d) integration
Ans. (b)
20. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-I
A. The process of seeking to 1. Co-operation
monopolize a reward by surpassing all rivals
B. A joint activity in pursuit of common goals or shared rewards 2. Assimilation
C. The process of monopolizing rewards by eliminating or 3. Accommodation
weakening the competitors
D. A process of developing working between conflicting 4. Conflict agreement
individuals or groups
5. Competition
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 5
(b) 5 1 4 3
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 5 2 1 4
Ans. (b)
21. Who, among the following, emphasized that conflict plays a positive role in preserving society?
(a) Max Weber
(b) Lewis Coser
(c) Karl Man
(d) Anthony Giddens
Ans. (b)
22.The concept of ‘relative deprivation’ has been widely used in policy discourse on which one of the following?
(a) Social and cultural tights of minorities
(b) Social conflict and harmony
(c) Multi-culturalism
(d) Poverty and inequality
Ans. (d)
23. The Hindu construction of the notion of marriage, as a sacrament, does not include in it the notion of equality within marriage based on ethics of justice. This is evident by the experiments of many social reformer to change the form and practice of marriage itself.
Match list- I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Social Reformer) (Experiment)
A. Jotirao Phule 1. Riddles of Hinduism
B. Tarabai Shinde 2. Self-respect Marriages
C. E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker 3. A school for untouchable girls and a home
for upper caste widows
D. B.R. Ambedkar 4. Stri-Purush Thulna
Code
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (c)
24. Consider the following forms of institutional relations
1. Social action
2. Social institutions
3. Community
4. Social relations
Max Weber brought together which of the above forms for developing a theory of urban community?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
25. Who authored Folkways which includes sex mores, the marriage institution and incest?
(a)F. Engles
(b) William G. Sumner
(c) George Murdock
(d) B. Cardmon Hardy
Ans. (b)
26. Which one of the following was used by Durkheim to explain his theory of functionalism?
(a) Structural principles
(b) Organic analogy
(c) Psychological facts
(d) Evolutionary universals
Ans. (b)
27. Assertion (A) Ascribed and achieved statuses are basically different yet they interact and may overlap each other.
Reason (R) At many points, the boundaries between ascribed and achieved statuses are indistinct, yet the concepts are useful.
Code
(a)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)
28. Assertion (A) The differences among groups are resolved permanently in accommodation.
Reason (R) Accommodation is mainly an unconscious activity
Code
(a) Both A and Rare individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (c)
29. The prevalence of arranged marriages in India is related to
(a) the rules of endogamy that confine marriage alliance within specified groups
(b) the rules of exogamy that disallow marriage within one’s clan/village/neighborhood
(c) regulations about prescriptive (allowing) and proscriptive (prohibiting) nature of rules, guiding marriage among parallel and cross-cousins
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
30. Which of the following tribes practice polygyny?
1. Masai
2. Yoruba
3. Bantu
Select the correct answer by using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
31. Which of the following is the basis of the system of marriage followed by most parts of north India?
(a) Village endogamy and gotra exogamy
(b) Village exogamy and gotra exogamy
(c) Village exogamy and preferential kin marriage
(d) None of the above
Axis. (b)
32. Marriage with mother’s brother’s daughter is a form of which one of the following?
(a) Restricted exchange
(b) Direct exchange
(c) Discontinuous exchange
(d) Generalized exchange
Ans (a)
33. Which one of the following pairs of forms of marriage refers to polygamy?
(a) Monogamy and polygyny
(b) Polygyny and polyandry
(c) Polyandry and monogamy
(d) Monogamy and bigamy
Ans. (b)
34. In the literature on kinship, the practice of fraternal polyandry has been associated particularly with which region of India?
(a) Western Himalayas
(b) Central plains region
(c) North-Eastern hill region
(d) Gangetic plains region
Ans. (c)
35. Which one of the following statement is not correct?
(a) Marriage is a sacrament. This means that a marriage cannot be dissolved
(b) Marriage is a contract. This means that a marriage can be terminated
(c) The notion -that ‘marriage is indissoluble’ has gradually been eroded and through legislation, the right of divorce has been introduced in all legal systems in India
(d) Only among the Muslims, marriage is a contract and divorce is allowed
Ans. (d)
36. The social group, in which a person is born, is referred to as which one of the following?
(a) The family of socialization
(b) The family of procreation
(c) The family of recreation
(d) The family of orientation
Ans. (d)
37. The difference between the kotamb and the matamal among Kashmiri Pandits refers to the difference between
(a) Agnates and non-agnatic cognates
(b) Biological and jural relationships
(c) Primary and secondary kin
(d) Mother’s sister’s family and mother’s brother’s family
Ans. (a)
38. Which one of the following is the family unit of Kodavas?
(a) Ghar
(b) Biradari
(c) Chulah
(d) Okka
Ans. (c)
39. The use of the term ‘Bapu’ to describe Mahatma Gandhi is an example of which one of the following?
(a) North Indian kinship terminology
(b) Fictive kinship
(c) Putative kinship
(d) Collateral kinship
Ans. (a)
40. According to the kinship theory, which one of the following is an example of ‘complimentary filiations’?
(a) The relation between mother’s brother and sister’s son in a patrilineal descent system
(b) The relation between grandparents and grandchildren in a system of unilineal descent
(c) The relation between mother and daughter in a system of matrilineal descent -
(d) The use of matrilineal descent for some purposes and patrilineal for others
Ans. (d)
41. Kinship has a complex form of classification based on which of the following?
1. Systems of descent
2. Relations of consanguinity
3. Affinal relations
Select the correct answer by using the code given below
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
42. Why has the functionalist approach to the study of the institution of family been criticized by many sociologists?
1. Functionalist perspective assumes the middle class families to be the ideal nw4ear families.
2. Functionalist approach does not consider class, regional and religious variations in studying the institution of family.
3. Functionalist view does not explore alternatives to the family.
Select the correct answer by using the code given below
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and3
(d) 1, 2 and3
Ans. (b)
43. Who among the following eminent sociologists on the basis of study of a particular society predicted that in the post-world. War II period, there will be an isolation, differentiation and specialization of the nuclear family as a bounded sub-system of the society?
(a) G.P. Murdock
(b) Talcott Parsons
(c) W.J. Goode
(d) R.D. Laing
Ans. (b)
44. Which, among the following factors, have interacted with the family and gave impetus to the second wave of feminists in 1960s to view the family with skepticism?
1. Legislation impacting gender, personal law and international migration.
2. Increased female labour force participation.
3. Advances in science, information and communication technologies.
4. New reproductive technologies.
Select the correct answer by using the code given below
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
45. Which one of the following statements is correct? Rules of residence after marriage form an important variable in a kinship system and thereby substantially affect
(a) the human behaviour by which goods are produced, distributed and consumed
(b) the quality of personal relations within the kin network
(c) the process of inducting kinship in the political culture
(d) the human capacity for symbolic communication or language
Ans. (b)
46. The Nayar taravad system was based on which one of the following?
(a) Necolocal residence patterns
(b) Virilocal residence patterns
(c) Natolocal residence patterns AV
(d) Uxorilocal residence patterns
Ans. (c)
47. Logical relations exist between residence rules and descent• group structure. Patrilineal descent systems correlate with either neolocal or patrivirilocal residence patterns. Which of the following patterns of residence do the matrilineal descent systems correlate with ?
(a) Neolocal, patrivirilocal and uxorilocal only
(b) Neolocal, avunculocal and uxorilocal only
(c) Neolocal, patrivirilocal and avunculocal only
(d) Neolocal, patrivirilocal, avunculocal and uxorilocal
Ans.(b)
48. Solving a major problem in conceptualizing the term of “descent”, who . among the following scholars distinguished ‘descent’ from ‘inheritance’ and confined the term ‘descent’ to ‘membership of a group only’?
(a) A.I. Richards
(b) W.H.R. Rivers
(c) M. Fortes
(d) J.A. Barnes
Ans. (b)
49. Consider the following statements
1. The Nuer are patrilineal and the Khasi are & matrilineal
2. The Beduoin are patrilineal and the Hopi are matrilineal
3. The Garo are matrilineal and the Toda are patrilineal
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
50.Double descent or duo lineal transmission of descent group membership involves which one of the following?
(a) Patrilineal transmission of one set of’ attributes and matrilineal transmission of another set
(b) Transmission equally through both parents
(c) Transmission in which descent lines are sex-specific i.e. men transmit to their sons and women to their daughters
(d) Transmission in which descent lines are such that men transmit to their daughters and women to their sons
Ans. (a)