UGC NET PAPERS Headline Animator

Friday, October 28, 2011

About CSIR-UGC

LIFE SCIENCES
The Joint CSIR-UGC JRF/LS (NET) Examination shall comprise 3 papers:
This paper shall be of 3 hours duration and shall have a maximum of 200 marks.


PART - A:
This part shall carry 20 questions pertaining to General Science, Quantitative Reasoning & Analysis and Research Aptitude. The candidates shall be required to answer any 15 questions. Each question shall be of two marks. The total marks allocated to this section shall be 30 out of 200.
PART - B:
This part shall contain 50 Multiple Choice Questions(MCQs) generally covering the topics given in the syllabus. A candidate shall be required to answer any 35 questions. Each question shall be of two marks. The total marks allocated to this section shall be 70 out of 200.
PART - C:
This part shall contain 75 questions that are designed to test a candidate's knowledge of scientific concepts and/or application of the scientific concepts. The questions shall be of analytical nature where a candidate is expected to apply the scientific knowledge to arrive at the solution to the given scientific problem. A candidate shall be required to answer any 25 questions. Each question shall be of four marks. The total marks allocated to this section shall be 100 out of 200.
There will be negative marking @25% for each wrong answer.




1. MOLECULES AND THEIR INTERACTION RELAVENT TO BIOLOGY
A. Structure of atoms, molecules and chemical bonds.
B. Composition, structure and function of biomolecules (carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids and vitamins).
C. Stabilizing interactions (Van der Waals, electrostatic, hydrogen bonding, hydrophobic interaction, etc.).
D. Principles of biophysical chemistry (pH, buffer, reaction kinetics, thermodynamics, colligative properties).
E. Bioenergetics, glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation, coupled reaction, group transfer, biological energy transducers.
F. Principles of catalysis, enzymes and enzyme kinetics, enzyme regulation, mechanism of enzyme catalysis, isozymes.
G. Conformation of proteins (Ramachandran plot, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure; domains; motif and folds).
H. Conformation of nucleic acids (A-, B-, Z-,DNA), t-RNA, micro-RNA.
I. Stability of protein and nucleic acid structures.
J. Metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, amino acids, nucleotides and vitamins.

2. CELLULAR ORGANIZATION A. Membrane structure and function: Structure of model membrane, lipid bilayer and membrane protein diffusion, osmosis, ion channels, active transport, ion pumps, mechanism of sorting and regulation of intracellular transport, electrical properties of membranes.
B. Structural organization and function of intracellular organelles: Cell wall, nucleus, mitochondria, Golgi bodies, lysosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, peroxisomes, plastids, vacuoles, chloroplast, structure & function of cytoskeleton and its role in motility.
C. Organization of genes and chromosomes: Operon, interrupted genes, gene families, structure of chromatin and chromosomes, unique and repetitive DNA, heterochromatin, euchromatin, transposons.
D. Cell division and cell cycle: Mitosis and meiosis, their regulation, steps in cell cycle, and control of cell cycle.
E. Microbial Physiology: Growth, yield and characteristics, strategies of cell division, stress response.

3. FUNDAMENTAL PROCESSES
A. DNA replication, repair and recombination: Unit of replication, enzymes involved, replication origin and replication fork, fidelity of replication, extrachromosomal replicons, DNA damage and repair mechanisms.
B. RNA synthesis and processing: Transcription factors and machinery, formation of initiation complex, transcription activators and repressors, RNA polymerases, capping, elongation and termination, RNA processing, RNA editing, splicing, polyadenylation, structure and function of different types of RNA, RNA transport.
C. Protein synthesis and processing: Ribosome, formation of initiation complex, initiation factors and their regulation, elongation and elongation factors, termination, genetic code, aminoacylation of tRNA, tRNA-identity, aminoacyl tRNA synthetase, translational proof-reading, translational inhibitors, post- translational modification of proteins.
D. Control of gene expression at transcription and translation level: Regulation of phages, viruses, prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene expression, role of chromatin in regulating gene expression and gene silencing.

4. CELL COMMUNICATION AND CELL SIGNALING
A. Host parasite interaction: Recognition and entry processes of different pathogens like bacteria, viruses into animal and plant host cells, alteration of host cell behavior by pathogens, virus-induced cell transformation, pathogen-induced diseases in animals and plants, cell-cell fusion in both normal and abnormal cells.
B. Cell signaling: Hormones and their receptors, cell surface receptor, signaling through G-protein coupled receptors, signal transduction pathways, second messengers, regulation of signaling pathways, bacterial and plant two-component signaling systems, bacterial chemotaxis and quorum sensing.
C. Cellular communication: Regulation of hematopoiesis, general principles of cell communication, cell adhesion and roles of different adhesion molecules, gap junctions, extracellular matrix, integrins, neurotransmission and its regulation.
D. Cancer: Genetic rearrangements in progenitor cells, oncogenes, tumor suppressor genes, cancer and the cell cycle, virus-induced cancer, metastasis, interaction of cancer cells with normal cells, apoptosis, therapeutic interventions of uncontrolled cell growth.
E. Innate and adaptive immune system: Cells and molecules involved in innate and adaptive immunity, antigens, antigenicity and immunogenicity. B and T cell epitopes, structure and function of antibody molecules, generation of antibody diversity, monoclonal antibodies, antibody engineering, antigen-antibody interactions, MHC molecules, antigen processing and presentation, activation and differentiation of B and T cells, B and T cell receptors, humoral and cell-mediated immune responses, primary and secondary immune modulation, the complement system, Toll-like receptors, cell-mediated effector functions, inflammation, hypersensitivity and autoimmunity, immune response during bacterial (tuberculosis), parasitic (malaria) and viral (HIV) infections, congenital and acquired immunodeficiencies, vaccines.

5. DEVELOPMENTAL BIOLOGY
A. Basic concepts of development: Potency, commitment, specification, induction, competence, determination and differentiation; morphogenetic gradients; cell fate and cell lineages; stem cells; genomic equivalence and the cytoplasmic determinants; imprinting; mutants and transgenics in analysis of development.
B. Gametogenesis, fertilization and early development: Production of gametes, cell surface molecules in sperm-egg recognition in animals; embryo sac development and double fertilization in plants; zygote formation, cleavage, blastula formation, embryonic fields, gastrulation and formation of germ layers in animals; embryogenesis, establishment of symmetry in plants; seed formation and germination.
C. Morphogenesis and organogenesis in animals: Cell aggregation and differentiation in Dictyostelium; axes and pattern formation in Drosophila, amphibia and chick; organogenesis – vulva formation in Caenorhabditis elegans; eye lens induction, limb development and regeneration in vertebrates; differentiation of neurons, post embryonic development-larval formation, metamorphosis; environmental regulation of normal development; sex determination.
D. Morphogenesis and organogenesis in plants: Organization of shoot and root apical meristem; shoot and root development; leaf development and phyllotaxy; transition to flowering, floral meristems and floral development in Arabidopsis and Antirrhinum.
E. Programmed cell death, aging and senescence

6. SYSTEM PHYSIOLOGY – PLANT
A. Photosynthesis: Light harvesting complexes; mechanisms of electron transport; photoprotective mechanisms; CO2 fixation-C3, C4 and CAM pathways.
B. Respiration and photorespiration: Citric acid cycle; plant mitochondrial electron transport and ATP synthesis; alternate oxidase; photorespiratory pathway.
C. Nitrogen metabolism: Nitrate and ammonium assimilation; amino acid biosynthesis.
D. Plant hormones: Biosynthesis, storage, breakdown and transport; physiological effects and mechanisms of action.
E. Sensory photobiology: Structure, function and mechanisms of action of phytochromes, cryptochromes and phototropins; stomatal movement; photoperiodism and biological clocks.
F. Solute transport and photoassimilate translocation: Uptake, transport and translocation of water, ions, solutes and macromolecules from soil, through cells, across membranes, through xylem and phloem; transpiration; mechanisms of loading and unloading of photoassimilates.
G. Secondary metabolites: Biosynthesis of terpenes, phenols and nitrogenous compounds and their roles.
H. Stress physiology: Responses of plants to biotic (pathogen and insects) and abiotic (water, temperature and salt) stresses; mechanisms of resistance to biotic stress and tolerance to abiotic stress

7. SYSTEM PHYSIOLOGY - ANIMAL
A. Blood and circulation: Blood corpuscles, haemopoiesis and formed elements, plasma function, blood volume, blood volume regulation, blood groups, haemoglobin, immunity, haemostasis.
B. Cardiovascular System: Comparative anatomy of heart structure, myogenic heart, specialized tissue, ECG – its principle and significance, cardiac cycle, heart as a pump, blood pressure, neural and chemical regulation of all above.
C. Respiratory system: Comparison of respiration in different species, anatomical considerations, transport of gases, exchange of gases, waste elimination, neural and chemical regulation of respiration.
D. Nervous system: Neurons, action potential, gross neuroanatomy of the brain and spinal cord, central and peripheral nervous system, neural control of muscle tone and posture.
E. Sense organs: Vision, hearing and tactile response.
F. Excretory system: Comparative physiology of excretion, kidney, urine formation, urine concentration, waste elimination, micturition, regulation of water balance, blood volume, blood pressure, electrolyte balance, acid-base balance.
G. Thermoregulation: Comfort zone, body temperature – physical, chemical, neural regulation, acclimatization.
H. Stress and adaptation I. Digestive system: Digestion, absorption, energy balance, BMR.
J. Endocrinology and reproduction: Endocrine glands, basic mechanism of hormone action, hormones and diseases; reproductive processes, neuroendocrine regulation.

8. INHERITANCE BIOLOGY
A. Mendelian principles: Dominance, segregation, independent assortment, deviation from Mendelian inheritance.
B. Concept of gene: Allele, multiple alleles, pseudoallele, complementation tests.
C. Extensions of Mendelian principles: Codominance, incomplete dominance, gene interactions, pleiotropy, genomic imprinting, penetrance and expressivity, phenocopy, linkage and crossing over, sex linkage, sex limited and sex influenced characters.
D. Gene mapping methods: Linkage maps, tetrad analysis, mapping with molecular markers, mapping by using somatic cell hybrids, development of mapping population in plants.
E. Extra chromosomal inheritance: Inheritance of mitochondrial and chloroplast genes, maternal inheritance.
F. Microbial genetics: Methods of genetic transfers – transformation, conjugation, transduction and sex-duction, mapping genes by interrupted mating, fine structure analysis of genes.
G. Human genetics: Pedigree analysis, lod score for linkage testing, karyotypes, genetic disorders.
H. Quantitative genetics: Polygenic inheritance, heritability and its measurements, QTL mapping.
I. Mutation: Types, causes and detection, mutant types – lethal, conditional, biochemical, loss of function, gain of function, germinal verses somatic mutants, insertional mutagenesis.
J. Structural and numerical alterations of chromosomes: Deletion, duplication, inversion, translocation, ploidy and their genetic implications.
K. Recombination: Homologous and non-homologous recombination, including transposition, site-specific recombination.

9. DIVERSITY OF LIFE FORMS
A. Principles and methods of taxonomy: Concepts of species and hierarchical taxa, biological nomenclature, classical and quantititative methods of taxonomy of plants, animals and microorganisms.
B. Levels of structural organization: Unicellular, colonial and multicellular forms; levels of organization of tissues, organs and systems; comparative anatomy.
C. Outline classification of plants, animals and microorganisms: Important criteria used for classification in each taxon; classification of plants, animals and microorganisms; evolutionary relationships among taxa.
D. Natural history of Indian subcontinent: Major habitat types of the subcontinent, geographic origins and migrations of species; common Indian mammals, birds; seasonality and phenology of the subcontinent.
E. Organisms of health and agricultural importance: Common parasites and pathogens of humans, domestic animals and crops.

10. ECOLOGICAL PRINCIPLES
A. The Environment: Physical environment; biotic environment; biotic and abiotic interactions.
B. Habitat and niche: Concept of habitat and niche; niche width and overlap; fundamental and realized niche; resource partitioning; character displacement.
C. Population ecology: Characteristics of a population; population growth curves; population regulation; life history strategies (r and K selection); concept of metapopulation – demes and dispersal, interdemic extinctions, age structured populations.
D. Species interactions: Types of interactions, interspecific competition, herbivory, carnivory, pollination, symbiosis.
E. Community ecology: Nature of communities; community structure and attributes; levels of species diversity and its measurement; edges and ecotones.
F. Ecological succession: Types; mechanisms; changes involved in succession; concept of climax.
G. Ecosystem: Structure and function; energy flow and mineral cycling (CNP); primary production and decomposition; structure and function of some Indian ecosystems: terrestrial (forest, grassland) and aquatic (fresh water, marine, eustarine).
H. Biogeography: Major terrestrial biomes; theory of island biogeography; biogeographical zones of India.
I. Applied ecology: Environmental pollution; global environmental change; biodiversity-status, monitoring and documentation; major drivers of biodiversity change; biodiversity management approaches.
J. Conservation biology: Principles of conservation, major approaches to management, Indian case studies on conservation/management strategy (Project Tiger, Biosphere reserves).

11. EVOLUTION AND BEHAVIOUR
A. Emergence of evolutionary thoughts: Lamarck; Darwin–concepts of variation, adaptation, struggle, fitness and natural selection; Mendelism; spontaneity of mutations; the evolutionary synthesis.
B. Origin of cells and unicellular evolution: Origin of basic biological molecules; abiotic synthesis of organic monomers and polymers; concept of Oparin and Haldane; experiment of Miller (1953); the first cell; evolution of prokaryotes; origin of eukaryotic cells; evolution of unicellular eukaryotes; anaerobic metabolism, photosynthesis and aerobic metabolism.
C. Paleontology and evolutionary history: The evolutionary time scale; eras, periods and epoch; major events in the evolutionary time scale; origins of unicellular and multicellular organisms; major groups of plants and animals; stages in primate evolution including Homo.
D. Molecular Evolution: Concepts of neutral evolution, molecular divergence and molecular clocks; molecular tools in phylogeny, classification and identification; protein and nucleotide sequence analysis; origin of new genes and proteins; gene duplication and divergence.
E. The Mechanisms: Population genetics – populations, gene pool, gene frequency; Hardy-Weinberg law; concepts and rate of change in gene frequency through natural selection, migration and random genetic drift; adaptive radiation and modifications; isolating mechanisms; speciation; allopatricity and sympatricity; convergent evolution; sexual selection; co-evolution.
F. Brain, Behavior and Evolution: Approaches and methods in study of behavior; proximate and ultimate causation; altruism and evolution-group selection, kin selection, reciprocal altruism; neural basis of learning, memory, cognition, sleep and arousal; biological clocks; development of behavior; social communication; social dominance; use of space and territoriality; mating systems, parental investment and reproductive success; parental care; aggressive behavior; habitat selection and optimality in foraging; migration, orientation and navigation; domestication and behavioral changes.

12. APPLIED BIOLOGY
A. Microbial fermentation and production of small and macro molecules.
B. Application of immunological principles (vaccines, diagnostics). Tissue and cell culture methods for plants and animals.
C. Transgenic animals and plants, molecular approaches to diagnosis and strain identification.
D. Genomics and its application to health and agriculture, including gene therapy.
E. Bioresource and uses of biodiversity.
F. Breeding in plants and animals, including marker – assisted selection.
G. Bioremediation and phytoremediation.
H. Biosensors.

13. METHODS IN BIOLOGY
A. Molecular biology and recombinant DNA methods: Isolation and purification of RNA, DNA (genomic and plasmid) and proteins, different separation methods; analysis of RNA, DNA and proteins by one and two dimensional gel electrophoresis, isoelectric focusing gels; molecular cloning of DNA or RNA fragments in bacterial and eukaryotic systems; expression of recombinant proteins using bacterial, animal and plant vectors; isolation of specific nucleic acid sequences; generation of genomic and cDNA libraries in plasmid, phage, cosmid, BAC and YAC vectors; in vitro mutagenesis and deletion techniques, gene knock out in bacterial and eukaryotic organisms; protein sequencing methods, detection of post-translation modification of proteins; DNA sequencing methods, strategies for genome sequencing; methods for analysis of gene expression at RNA and protein level, large scale expression analysis, such as micro array based techniques; isolation, separation and analysis of carbohydrate and lipid molecules; RFLP, RAPD and AFLP techniques specific nucleic acid sequences; generation of genomic and cDNA libraries in plasmid, phage, cosmid, BAC and YAC vectors; in vitro mutagenesis and deletion techniques, gene knock out in bacterial and eukaryotic organisms; protein sequencing methods, detection of post-translation modification of proteins; DNA sequencing methods, strategies for genome sequencing; methods for analysis of gene expression at RNA and protein level, large scale expression analysis, such as micro array based techniques; isolation, separation and analysis of carbohydrate and lipid molecules; RFLP, RAPD and AFLP techniques
B. Histochemical and immunotechniques: Antibody generation, detection of molecules using ELISA, RIA, western blot, immunoprecipitation, flowcytometry and immunofluorescence microscopy, detection of molecules in living cells, in situ localization by techniques such as FISH and GISH.
C. Biophysical methods: Analysis of biomolecules using UV/visible, fluorescence, circular dichroism, NMR and ESR spectroscopy, structure determination using X-ray diffraction and NMR; analysis using light scattering, different types of mass spectrometry and surface plasma resonance methods.
D. Statistical Methods: Measures of central tendency and dispersal; probability distributions (Binomial, Poisson and normal); sampling distribution; difference between parametric and non-parametric statistics; confidence interval; errors; levels of significance; regression and correlation; t-test; analysis of variance; X2 test; basic introduction to Muetrovariate statistics, etc.
E. Radiolabeling techniques: Properties of different types of radioisotopes normally used in biology, their detection and measurement; incorporation of radioisotopes in biological tissues and cells, molecular imaging of radioactive material, safety guidelines.
F. Microscopic techniques: Visualization of cells and subcellular components by light microscopy, resolving powers of different microscopes, microscopy of living cells, scanning and transmission microscopes, different fixation and staining techniques for EM, freeze-etch and freeze-fracture methods for EM, image processing methods in microscopy.
G. Electrophysiological methods: Single neuron recording, patch-clamp recording, ECG, Brain activity recording, lesion and stimulation of brain, pharmacological testing, PET, MRI, fMRI, CAT.
H. Methods in field biology: Methods of estimating population density of animals and plants, ranging patterns through direct, indirect and remote observations, sampling methods in the study of behavior, habitat characterization-ground and remote sensing methods.
I. Computational methods: Nucleic acid and protein sequence databases; data mining methods for sequence analysis, web-based tools for sequence searches, motif analysis and presentation.

Wednesday, October 26, 2011

CSIR UGC NET NOTIFICATION

CSIR will hold the Joint CSIR-UGC Test on 18th December, 2011 for determining the eligibility of the Indian National candidates for the award of Junior Research Fellowships (JRF) NET and for determining eligibility for appointment of Lecturers (NET) in certain subject areas falling under the faculty of Science. The award of Junior Research Fellowship (NET) to the successful eligible candidates will depend on their finding admission/placement in a university/ national laboratory/ institution of higher learning and research, as applicable.
  • Junior Research Fellowships (NET)
  • Lecturers (NET)

Educational Qualification:

M.Sc. or Equivalent degree under the subjects mentioned in para 2.1 above, with minimum 55% marks for General & OBC candidates; 50% for SC/ST candidates, Physically and Visually Handicapped candidates and Ph.D. degree holders who had passed Master's degree prior to 19th September 1991.
A candidate can also apply for the Test under RA (Result Awaited) category, if he/she is appearing or has appeared in his/her final year (Last Semester where Semester system is there) of M.Sc. OR equivalent Degree Examination in subjects mentioned in para 2.1 above during the academic Session 2011-2012. Such candidates will have to submit the attestation format (given at the reverse of the application form) duly certified by the Head of the Deptt./Institute over his/her signature and rubber stamp (with address and name) from where the candidate is appearing or has appeared in the final year(Last Semester where Semester system is there) M.Sc. or equivalent degree examination. However, such candidates shall be admitted to the Test provisionally. They shall only be considered eligible for JRF-(NET)/LS-(NET), if they are able to produce the proof of having passed the Master’s Degree examination in the relevant or related subject with the requisite percentage of marks and within the stipulated IMPORTANT DATES time frame. Students enrolled in integrated MS-Ph D. program are also eligible to apply for JRF in subject areas of NET. Their eligibility for Lectureship will be subject to fulfilling the criteria laid down by UGC.

Subjects of The Test:

The Test will be held in the subjects as given under:
  • Chemical Sciences,
  • Earth Sciences
  • Life Sciences
  • Mathematical Sciences
  • Physical Sciences

Age Limit:

  • For JRF (NET): Minimum 19 Years and maximum 28 years as on 01-07-2011 (upper age limit may be relaxed up to 5 years as in case of candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC(Non Creamy Layer), Physically handicapped/Visually handicapped and female applicants).
  • For LS (NET): Minimum 19 years, as on 01.07.2011. No upper age limit.

Date and Scheme of the Test:

The single paper MCQ based test will be held on Sunday, the 18th December, 2011 as under:
Morning Session:
Subject Marks Timings Duration
(i) Life Sciences
(ii) Mathematical Sciences
200 9.00AM-12.00PM 3 hrs
Afternoon Session:
Subject Marks Timings Duration
(i) Chemical Sciences
(ii) Earth, Atmospheric, Ocean and Planetary Sciences
(iii) Physical Sciences
200 2.00 PM-5.00 PM 3 hrs

Syllabus of The Test:

The question paper shall be divided into three parts, (A, B & C) as per syllabus & Scheme of Exam.
  • Part 'A' shall be common to all subjects. This part shall contain questions pertaining to General Science, Quantitative Reasoning & Analysis and Research Aptitude.
  • Part 'B' shall contain subject-related conventional Multiple Choice questions (MCQs), generally covering the topics given in the syllabus.
  • Part 'C' shall contain higher value questions that may test the candidate's knowledge of scientific concepts and/or application of the scientific concepts. The questions shall be of analytical nature where a candidate is expected to apply the scientific knowledge to arrive at the solution to the given scientific problem.
  • Negative marking for wrong answers, wherever required, shall be applicable as per scheme of Exam. Syllabus & Scheme of Exam of single Paper is given in the Information Bulletin for this test at Annexure "A" and may also be seen at CSIR website: www.csirhrdg.res.in

Examination Centres:

The test will be held at 26 Centres spread all over India, as specified below:
Bangalore, Bhavnagar, Bhopal, Bhubaneshwar, Chandigarh, Chennai, Cochin, Delhi, Guntur, Guwahati, Hyderabad, Imphal, Jammu, Jamshedpur, Karaikudi, Kolkata, Lucknow, Nagpur, Pilani, Pune, Raipur Roorkee, Srinagar, Thiruvananthapuram, Udaipur and Varanasi.
Fee:
  • General Rs. 400/-
  • Other Backward Classes(OBC) (Non Creamy Layer) Rs. 200/-
  • SC/ST/Physically Handicapped (PH) or Visually Handicapped (VH ) Rs. 100/-

How To Apply:

By Post:
The information Bulletin and Application form may also be obtained through Value Payable Post(V.P.P.) from the Indian Bank, 3/1, West Patel Nagar, New Delhi - 110 008, by sending a crossed Demand draft for Rs. 400/-, Rs. 200/- or Rs.100/-(as the case may be) drawn in favour of “Indian Bank, West Patel Nagar, New Delhi” payable at New Delhi. For this purpose, the candidate should send a request to the Bank with TWO self-addressed slips clearly mentioning the address at which he/she desires the Information Bulletin & Application Form to be sent by Value Payable Post (V.P.P.) As above mentioned Bank will entertain the request for forms through post from Tuesday, the 16th August, 2011 to Tuesday, the 30th August, 2011 only, hence, candidates are advised to send well in advance so as to reach their request within the above said period. The candidate should write his/her name, Date Of Birth, address, date of Examination (18.12.2011) and subject code on the back of the Demand Draft. However, before attaching the draft with letter of request, the candidates should check that it bears the code number of the issuing bank and drawee bank and also amount and signatures of issuing authority.
Option-II : Apply Through Online Application:
Interested & eligible candidates may apply for this test Online through a link available at CSIR, HRDG website: www.csirhrdg.res.in.  In order to apply Online the candidates are required to download Bank challan Performa from the above website and then deposit the requisite examination fee in any of the Indian Bank branches throughout the country. The examination fee for the Online application is same as mentioned in Para-5.1.1 above. Candidates after successfully submitting application online are required to take print out of the Application Form, paste his/her recent black & white photograph, put his/her signature at the required space, attach requisite certificates and send alongwith CSIR marked copy of fee deposited Bank Challan in an envelope to Sr. Controller of Examinations, Human Resource Development Group, Examination Unit, CSIR Complex, Library Avenue, Pusa, New Delhi-110012 so as to reach on or before 09.09.2011 (16.09.2011 for remote areas).
Online applications without hard copy or bank challan receipt or incomplete in any respect will be summarily rejected. Before applying Online, candidates are advised to go through detailed notification available at CSIR, HRDG website. Examination fee paid along with the Information Bulletin or through Bank Challan for a particular examination will neither be adjusted for any subsequent examination nor refunded under any circumstances. Candidates should also check all the columns of Bank Challan, online application, which are to be filled in properly to avoid cancellation of application, Please note that Fee submitted by any other mode like money order, demand draft, IPO etc. will be summarily rejected.

Important Dates:

A. Date of Single MCQ Examination 18.12.2011
B Schedule for sale of Information Bulletin through Bank
(i) Start of sale of Information Bulletin
(ii) Date of close of sale of Information Bulletin by post only
(iii)Date of close of sale of Information Bulletin by cash at all branches/ stations
16.08.2011
30.08.2011
05.09.2011
C Schedule for On-Line Application
(i) Start of On-Line Submission of Application Form and Fee deposit through Bank Challan
(ii) Date of close of On-Line deposit of fee (at All stations)
(iii)Date of close of On-Line submission of Applications (at All stations)
16.08.2011
05.09.2011
06.09.2011
D Last date of receipt of completed application forms (including duly completed hard
copy of on line application in the Examination Unit
09.09.2011
E Last date of receipt of (both kind) Completed application forms (from remote areas) 16.09.2011
F Last Date for receipt of written request for change of Examination Centre only on merit basis 03.10.2011
G Publication of list of candidates registered for test on CSIR, HRDG website 01.11.2011
H Last date for entertainment of any representation about non-registration for this test 08.11.2011
I Start of dispatch of Admission Certificate to eligible candidates last week of Nov., 2011

UGC NET English Solved Paper II January : 2010

1. The epithet “a comic epic in prose” is best applied to

(A) Richardson’s Pamela
(B) Sterne’s A Sentimental Journey
(C) Fielding’s Tom Jones
(D) Defoe’s Robinson Crusoe


2. Muriel Spark has written a dystopian novel called
(A) Memento Mori
(B) The Prime of Miss Jean Brodie
(C) Robinson
(D) The Ballad of Peckham Rye


3. Samuel Butler’s Erewhon is an example of
(A) Feminist Literature
(B) Utopian Literature
(C) War Literature
(D) Famine Literature



4. The line “moments of unageing intellect” occurs in Yeats’s
(A) Byzantium
(B) Among School Children
(C) Sailing to Byzantium
(D) The Circus Animals’ Desertion


5. In his 1817 review of Coleridge’s Biographia Literaria, Francis Jeffrey grouped the following poets together as the ‘Lake School of Poets’ :
(A) Keats, Wordsworth and Coleridge
(B) Wordsworth, Byron and Coleridge
(C) Blake, Wordsworth and Coleridge
(D) Wordsworth, Coleridge and Southey


6. Which of the following novels is not by Patrick White ?
(A) The Vivisector
(B) The Tree of Man
(C) Voss
(D) Oscar and Lucienda


7. The famous line “……. where ignorant armies clash by night” is taken from a poem by
(A) Wilfred Owen
(B) W.H. Auden
(C) Siegfried Sassoon
(D) Matthew Arnold


9. The term ‘theatre of cruelty’ was coined by 
(A) Robert Brustein
(B) Antonin Artaud
(C) Augusto Boal
(D) Luigi Pirandello


10. The verse form of Byron’s Childe Harold was influenced by
(A) Milton
(B) Spenser
(C) Shakespeare
(D) Pope


11. Tennyson’s Ulysses is
(I) a poem expressing the need for going forward and braving the struggles of life
(II) a dramatic monologue
(III) a morbid poem
(IV) a poem making extensive use of satire The right combination for the above statement, according to the code, is
(A) I & IV
(B) II and III
(C) III and IV
(D) I and II
12. Which post-war British poet was involved in a disastrous marriage with Sylvia Plath ?
(A) Philip Larkin
(B) Ted Hughes
(C) Stevie Smith
(D) Geoffrey Hill


13. Chaucer’s Parliament of Fowles is in part
(I) a puzzle
(II) a debate
(III) a threnody
(IV) a beast fable
The correct combination for the above statement, according to the code, is
(A) I, II & IV
(B) II, III & IV
(C) I & IV
(D) II & IV


14. Who among the following wrote a book with the title The Age of Reason ?
(A) William Godwin
(B) Edmund Burke
(C) Thomas Paine
(D) Edward Gibbon


15. The Restoration comedy has been criticized mainly for its
(A) excessive wit and humour
(B) bitter satire and cynicism
(C) indecency and permissiveness
(D) superficial reflection of society

16. Ideology and Ideological State Apparatuses is an essay by
(A) Terry Eagleton
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Raymond Williams
(D) Louis Althusser


17. Sexual possessiveness is a theme of Shakespeare’s
(A) Coriolanus
(B) Julius Caesar
(C) Henry IV Part – I
(D) A Midsummer Night’s Dream


18. The term ‘Cultural Materialism’ is associated with
(A) Stephen Greenblatt
(B) Raymond Williams
(C) Matthew Arnold
(D) Richard Hoggart


19. Which of the following author book pair is correctly matched ?
(A) Muriel Spark – Under the Net
(B) William – Girls of Golding Slender Means
(C) Angus Wilson – Lucky Jim
(D) Doris Lessing – The Grass is Singing



20. Who among the following is a Canadian critic ?
(A) I.A. Richards
(B) F.R. Leavis
(C) Cleanth Brooks
(D) Northrop Frye

21. Sethe is a character in
(A) The Colour Purple
(B) The Women of Brewster Place
(C) Beloved
(D) Lucy

22. Imagined Communities is a book by
(A) Aijaz Ahmad
(B) Edward Said
(C) Perry Anderson
(D) Benedict Anderson

23. Who among the following is a Cavalier poet ?
(A) Henry Vaughan
(B) Richard Crashaw
(C) John Suckling
(D) Anne Finch


24. Which play of Wilde has the subtitle, A Trivial Comedy for Serious People ?
(A) A Woman of No Importance
(B) Lady Windermere’s Fan
(C) The Importance of Being Earnest
(D) An Ideal Husband

25. Which of the following plays is not written by Wole Soyinka ?
(A) The Lion and the Jewel
(B) The Dance of the Forests
(C) Master Harold and the Boys
(D) Kongi’s Harvest


26. Which of the following plays by William Wycherley is in part an adaptation of Moliere’s The Misanthrope ?
(A) The Plain Dealer
(B) The Country Wife
(C) Love in a Wood
(D) The Gentleman Dancing Master


27. ‘Inversion’ is the change in the word order for creating rhetorical effect, e.g. this book I like. Another term for inversion is 
(A) Hypallage
(B) Hubris
(C) Haiku
(D) Hyperbaton

28. The phrase ‘the willing suspension of disbelief ’ occurs in 
(A) Biographia Literaria
(B) Preface to Lyrical Ballads
(C) In Defence of Poetry
(D) Poetics

29. The religious movement Methodism in the 18th century England was founded by
(A) John Tillotson
(B) Bishop Butler
(C) Bernard Mandeville
(D) John Welsey


30. My First Acquaintance with Poets, an unforgettable account of meeting with literary heroes, is written by
(A) Charles Lamb
(B) Thomas de Quincey
(C) Leigh Hunt
(D) William Hazlitt

31. The figure of the Warrior Virgin in Spenser’s Faerie Queene is represented by the character
(A) Britomart
(B) Gloriana
(C) Cynthia
(D) Duessa


32. The book Speech Acts is written by
(A) John Austin
(B) John Searle
(C) Jacques Derrida
(D) Ferdinand de Saussure

33. Which among the following is not a sonnet sequence ?
(A) Philip Sydney – Astrophel
and Stella
(B) Samuel Daniel – Delia
(C) Derek Walcott – Omeroos
(D) D.G. Rossetti – The House
of Life

34. ‘Incunabula’ refers to 
(A) books censured by the Roman Emperor
(B) books published before the year 1501
(C) books containing an account of myths and rituals
(D) books wrongly attributed to an author


35. The most notable achievement in Jacobean prose was
(A) Bacon’s Essays
(B) King James’ translation of the Bible
(C) Robert Burton’s Anatomy of Melancholy
(D) None of the above

36. The Court of Chancery is a setting in Dickens’
(A) Little Dorrit
(B) Hard Times
(C) Dombey and Son
(D) Bleak House

37. Which romantic poet coined the famous phrase ‘spots of time’ ?
(A) John Keats
(B) William Wordsworth
(C) S.T. Coleridge
(D) Lord Byron

38. The statement ‘I think, therefore, I am’ is by
(A) Schopenhauer
(B) Plato
(C) Descartes
(D) Sartre


39. Verse that has no set theme – no regular meter, rhyme or stanzaic pattern is
(I) open form
(II) flexible form
(III) free verse
(IV) blank verse
The correct combination for the statement, according to the code, is
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) III and IV are correct
(C) II, III and IV are correct
(D) I and III are correct

40. Which is the correct sequence of publication of Pinter’s plays ?
(A) The Room, One for theRoad, No Man’s Land, The Homecoming
(B) The Homecoming, NoMan’s Land, The Room,One for the Road
(C) The Room, The Homecoming, No Man’s Land, One for the Road
(D) One for the Road, TheRoom, The Homecoming,No Man’s Land


41. Johnson’s Dictionary of the English Language was published in the year
(A) 1710
(B) 1755
(C) 1739
(D) 1759


42. The literary prize, Booker of Bookers, was awarded to
(A) J.M. Coetzee
(B) Nadine Gordimer
(C) Martin Amis
(D) Salman Rushdie

43. In Keats’ poetic career, the most productive year was
(A) 1816
(B) 1817
(C) 1820
(D) 1819


44. Pope’s The Rape of the Lock was published in 1712 in
(A) three cantos
(B) four cantos
(C) five cantos
(D) two cantos


45. Stephen Dedalus is a fictional character associated with
 I. A Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man
II. Sons and Lovers
III. Ulysses
IV. The Heart of Darkness
The correct combination for the above statement according to the code is
(A) I & II
(B) I, II & III
(C) III & IV
(D) I & III

46. In Moby Dick Captain Ahab falls for his
(A) ignorance
(B) pride
(C) courage
(D) drunkenness

47. The first complete printed English Bible was produced by
(A) William Tyndale
(B) William Caxton
(C) Miles Coverdale
(D) Roger Ascham


48. Elizabeth Gaskell’s novel Mary Barton is sub-titled
(A) The Two Nations
(B) A Tale of Manchester Life
(C) A Story of Provincial Life
(D) The Factory Girl

 49. Some of the Jacobean playwrights were prolific. One of them claimed to have written 200 plays. The playwright is
(A) John Ford
(B) Thomas Dekker
(C) Philip Massinger
(D) Thomas Heywood


50. The concept of “Star-equilibrium” in connection with man-woman relationship appears in
(A) Women in Love
(B) Maurice
(C) Mrs. Dalloway
(D) The Old Wives’ Tales

CSIR NET 2008 PAPERS

UGC NET POLITICAL SCIENCE PAPER-II SOLVED PAPER

NET Political Science Solved Paper.pdf

ugc net 2001 paper-1 solved paper

1. Which novel has a nameless narrator?
(a) Moby Dick
(b) Anna Karenina
(c) Invisible Man
(d) The Grapes of Wrath
2. Samuel Beckett wrote -
(a) Volpone
(b) Mother Courage and Her Children
(c) A Doll's House
(d) Endgame
3. Which one of the following author-book pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Elfride Jelinek - The Pianist
(b) J.M. Coetzee- Shame
(c) Saul Bellow - Herzog
(d) Salman Rushdie - Disgrace
4. The Plough and the ‘Stars' was written by -
(a) G.B. Shaw
(b) Sean O'Casey
(c) Lady Gregory
(d) J.M. Synge
5. Willy Loman is a character in-
(a) Waiting for Godot
(b) A Doll's House
(c) The Cherry Orchard
(d) The Death of a Salesman
6. John Evellyn and Samuel Pepys were the famous writers of -
(a) Editorials
(b) Letters
(c) Essays
(d) Diaries
7. The subtitle of Dryden's Absalom and Achitophel is -
(a) There was no subtitle
(b) A Poem
(c) A Satire
(d) A satire on the True Blue Protestant Poets
8. Who of the following is not a periodical essayist?
(a) Richard Steele
(b) Lancelot Andrews
(c) Joseph Addison
(d) Jonathan Swift
9. "Did he who made the Lamb made thee" appears in-
(a) ‘Introduction'
(b) ‘ The Tyger'
(c) ‘Chimney Sweeper'
(d) ‘London'
10. Which of the following thinker- concept pairs is rightly matched?
(a) I.A. Richards - Archetypal criticism
(b) Northrop Frye-Practical criticism
(c) Jacqes Devide - New Historicism
(d) Stanley Fish - Reader Response
11. "Essays of Eila" are-
(a) Economic disparity
(b) Literary criticism
(c) Political ideology
(d) Personal impressions
12. Which of the following thinker - concept pairs is rightly matched?
(a) Mamata - Vakrokti
(b) Abhinava Gupta- Kavya Alankar
(c) Bharata - Natya Shastra
(d) Vaman - Dhwanyaloka
13. Choose the correct sequence of the following schools of criticism -
(a) Deconstruction, New Criticism, Structuralism, Reader Response
(b) Reader Response, Deconstruction, Structuralism, New Criticism
(c) New Criticism, Structuralism, Deconstruction, Reader Response
(d) Structuralism, New Criticism, Deconstruction, Reader Response
14. ‘Peripeteia' means -
(a) Tragic flaw
(b) Recognition of error
(c) Purgation of emotion
(d) Reversal of fortune
15. ‘Gynocriticism' focuses on -
(a) Criticism of male writers by women writers
(b) Criticism on women
(c) Criticism by women
(d) Women as writers
16. Samuel Butler's Hudibras is modeled upon -
(a) Don Quixote
(b) Endymion
(c) Annus Mirabilis
(d) Pilgrim's Progress
17. Who was the last of the Christian Humanists?
(a) John Bunyan
(b) Oliver Cromwell
(c) John Milton
(d) Richard Crashaw
18. The narrative of Raja Rao's Kanthapura is based on-
(a) The Ramayana
(b) The Mahabharata
(c) Puranas
(d) Shastras
19. Which of the following author- book pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Arundhati Roy - Algebra of Infinite Justice
(b) Shashi Tharoor - Trotter's Name
(c) C.L.R. James - The English Patient
(d) David Madouf - The Cityof Djins
20. Who wrote ‘A tiger does not proclaim its tigretude' ?
(a) Derek Walcott
(b) Soyinka
(c) Achebe
(d) Ngugi
21. ‘Jindiworobak' movement relates to -
(a) Caribbean literature
(b) Canadian literature
(c) Australian literature
(d) New Zealand literature
22. The Montreal group of poets championed the cause of-
(a) Modernist poetry
(b) Imagist poetry
(c) Symbolist poetry
(d) Nature poetry
23. The figure of the ‘Abyssinian Maid' appears in-
(a) ‘Kubla Khan'
(b) ‘Frost at Midnight'
(c) ‘Dejection : an Ode'
(d) ‘Christabel'
24. Coleridge's statement that imagination "dissolves, diffuse, dissipates in order to recreate" relates to -
(a) secondary imagination
(b) esemplastic imagination
(c) fancy
(d) primary imagination
25. Who among the following is a writer of historical romances?
(a) Walter Savage
(b) Walter Scott
(c) Jane Austen
(d) Emily Bronte
26. Which of the following sequences is correct?
(a) Vanity Fair, Henry Esmond, Middlemarch, The Return of the Native
(b) Henry Esmond, Vanity Fair, Middlemarch, The Return of the Native
(c) Middlemarch, The Return of the Native, Vanity Fair, Henry Esmond
(d) The Return of the Native, Middlemarch, Vanity Fair, Henry Esmond
27. Queen Victoria's reign, after whom the Victorian period is named, spans-
(a) 1833 - 1901
(b) 1837 - 1901
(c) 1840 - 1905
(d) 1843 - 1905
28. Pre- Raphaelite poetry is mainly concerned with -
(a) narrative and style
(b) narrative and nature
(c) form and design
(d) form and value
29. The concept of "mad woman in the attic" can be traced to-
(a) The Tenant of Wildfell- Hall
(b) Villette
(c) Wuthering Heights
(d) Jane Eyre
30. Who among the Victorians is called "the prophet of modern society" ?
(a) Ruskin
(b) Carlyle
(c) Macaulay
(d) Arnold
31. Who among the following is not a pilgrim in The Canterbury Tales?
(a) The Haberdasher
(b) The Tapyser
(c) The Blacksmith
(d) The Summoner
32. Bosola is the executioner in -
(a) The Spanish Tragedy
(b) The Duchess of Malfi
(c) The White Devil
(d) The Jew of Malta
33. The mystery plays deal with -
(a) The life of Christ
(b) The New Testament
(c) Psalms
(d) Apocrypha
34. The Faerie Queene is based on -
(a) Utopia
(b) Tottel's Miscellany
(c) Morte d' Arthur
(d) Orlando Furioso
35. Choose the correct chronological sequence of the following plays-
(a) King Lear, Othello, Macbeth, Hamlet
(b) Othello, Macbeth, King Lear, Hamlet
(c) Hamlet, Othello, King Lear, Macbeth
(d) Hamlet, King Lear, Othello, Macbeth
36. Pope's ‘Essay on Criticism' sums up the art of poetry as taught first by-
(a) Aristotle
(b) Horace
(c) Longinus
(d) Plato
37. Swift's Tale of a Tub is a satire on -
(a) Science and philosophy
(b) Art and morality
(c) Dogma and superstition
(d) Fake morals and manners
38. Dr. Johnson started -
(a) The Postman
(b) The Spectator
(c) The Rambler
(d) The Tatler
39. Who among the following cautioned against the dangers of popular liberty?
(a) Mary Wollstonecraft
(b) Edmund Burke
(c) Thomas Hobbes
(d) John Locke
40. Which famous American classic opens with "Call me Ishmael"?
(a) Rip Van Winkle
(b) The Scarlet Letter
(c) The Grapes of Wrath
(d) Moby Dick
41. Allen Ginsberg's Vision of America is inspired by -
(a) Walt Whitman
(b) Robert Frost
(c) Ralph Waldo Emerson
(d) Edgar A. Poe
42. Who among the following represents the Sri Lankan diaspora ?
(a) M.G. Vassanji
(b) Cyril Debydeen
(c) Michael Ondaatje
(d) Arnold H. Itwaru
43. Out of Africa is a film adaptation of a work by -
(a) Alice Walker
(b) Margaret Lawrence
(c) Margaret Atwood
(d) Alice Munro
44. The Empire Writes Back was written by -
(a) Bill Ashcroft, Helen Tiffin, Ngugi Wa Thinngo
(b) Bill Ashcroft, Helen Tiffin, Stephen Slemon
(c) Bill Ashcroft, Gareth Griffiths, Chinua Achebe
(d) Bill Ashcroft, Helen Tiffin, Gareth Griffiths
45. The Theatre of Cruelty is associated with -
(a) Stanislavosky
(b) Grotovsky
(c) Antonin Artand
(d) Eugino Barba
46. A particle is -
(a) A patchwork of words, sentences, passages
(b) A satirical poem
(c) A love song
(d) A collection of lines from different poems
47. "Careless she is with artful Care/ Affecting to seem unaffected" is an example of -
(a) Irony
(b) Paradox
(c) Simile
(d) Metaphor
48. A metrical foot containing a stressed, followed by an unstressed, syllable is - (a) Anapaest
(b) Iamb
(c) Trochee
(d) Dacty 1
49. The rhyme scheme of a Spenserian sonnet is -
(a) abba, cbcb, cdcd, ee
(b) abab, bccb, ccdd, ee
(c) aabb, bcbc, ccdd, ee
(d) abab, bcbc, cdcd, ee
50. Using the expression ‘Crown' for the monarchy is an example of -
(a) Metonymy
(b) Synecdoche
(c) Irony
(d) Metaphor
Answers
1. (c), 2. (d), 3. (c), 4. (b), 5. (d), 6. (d), 7. (b), 8. (d), 9. (c), 10. (d), 11. (d), 12. (c), 13. (b), 14. (d), 15. (d), 16. (a), 17. (a), 18. (c), 19. (a), 20. (c), 21. (a), 22. (a), 23. (a), 24. (d), 25. (b), 26. (a), 27. (b), 28. (c), 29. (c), 30. (d), 31. (b), 32. (b), 33. (b), 34. (c), 35. (c), 36. (c), 37. (c), 38. (c), 39. (b), 40. (a), 41. (a), 42. (c), 43. (b), 44. (c), 45. (b), 46. (a), 47. (b), 48. (c), 49. (d), 50. (a)