UGC NET PAPERS Headline Animator

Friday, November 4, 2011

UGC NET Public administration Solved Paper


1. To which of the following notions of the man in an organizational set-up does the concept of bounded rationality relate more closely?
1. Economic
2. Optimizing
3. Administrative
4. Satisficing
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Advocate) (Model)
A. Herbert Simon 1. Mixed scanning model
B. Charles Lindblom 2. Economic rationality model
C. Amitai Etzioni 3. Bounded rationality model
4. Incremental model
Code:
A B C
(a) 3 2 4
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 3
(d) 3 4 1
Ans. (d)
3.According to Yehezkel Dror, which of the following characteristics of the optimal model of policy making help man in understanding the optimal model?
1. It contains both rational and extra-rational elements.
2. It has basic rationality and economic rationality.
3. It contains a built-in-feedback system.
4. it adopts the methodology of logical positivism.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)
4. Which of the following are propounded by the Theory Y of Douglas McGregor?
1. exercises self-direction in the service of objectives that he seeks to realize
2. has commitment to objectives as a function of rewards
3. inherently likes work
4. has a capacity for imagination, ingenuity and creativity.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (c)
5. Which one of the following leadership styles was identified by the Michigan University Leadership Studies as the most effective leadership style?
(a) Democratic style leadership
(b) Employee-centered leadership
(c) Participative group leadership
(d) Team leadership
Ans. (b)
6. Who among the following has observed that instead of hierarchy of needs, motivation should be understood in terms of series of needs?
(a) Chester Barnard
(b) David Mc Clelland
(c) Abraham Maslow
(d) Warren Bennis
Ans. (b)
7. According to Frederick Herzberg, the determinants of Job dissatisfaction include
1. Working condition
2. Supervision
3. Salary
4. Responsibility
5. Recognition
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 4 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5only
Ans. (b)
UNIT-V
ACCOUNTABILITY AND CONTROL
8 According Henri Fayol, which of the following actions are required in supervisory control process?
1. Standard actions
2. Corrective actions
3. Coercive actions
4. Evaluative actions.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) l and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (d)
9. On which of the following factors does people’s participation depend for its success in influencing the governance process?
1. Ability of the people to participate
2. Willingness for the people to participate
3. Opportunity4o the people to participate
4. Mechanisms available for participation.
Code:
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) l, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)
UNIT-VI
ADMINISTRATIVE SYSTEMS
10. Which one of the following thinkers was first to talk about the concept of ‘Constructive Conflict’ in an organization?
(a) Elton Mayo
(b) Mary Parker Follett
(c) Peter Blau
(d) Henri Fayol
Ans. (b)
11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Commission/Committee) (Recommendation)
A. First Hoover Commission 1. Division of training and education
B. First Hoover Commission 2. Reorganization of US President’s office
C. Brown low Committee 3. Senior executive service
D. Fulton Committee 4. Office of general service Administration
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (b)
12. By which one of the following Acts, are the political activities of civil servants in the USA regulated?
(a) The Hatch Act of 1939
(b) The Civil Service Act of 1833
(c) The Ramspeck Act of 1940
(d) The Taft-Kartley Act of 1947
Ans. (a)
13. The office of the Ombudsman like institution in the form of Parliamentary Commissioner, for Administration in the United Kingdom was set up on the recommendations of which one of the following reports?
(a) Sir John Whyatt Report
(b) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(c) Fulton Report
(d) Aitchison Report
Ans. (a)
14. Which one of the following statements in respect of the French Civil Service is not correct?
(a) ENA is concerned with the training of technical personnel
(b) Basic unit of organization of the civil service is called Corps.
(c) French Civil Service is elitist
(d) Civil servants are allowed to take leave and contest for political offices.
Ans. (a)
15. Which of the following local government units are prevalent in France?
1. Department
2. Arrondissement
3. Canton
4. Commune
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c)
16. The Amakudari system in respect of the civil service in Japan is
(a) a post-retirement assignment
(b) professional training
(c) foreign posting
(d) monetary compensation
Ans. (a)
17. Which of the following statements “regarding civil services in Japan is/are correct”?
1. The NPA and MCA are its principal controlling and coordinating agencies.
2. The Japanese higher civil service is elitist.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of above
Ans. (c)
18. In which among the following countries is Charter Mark programme being effectively used to evaluate the performance of government agencies through outside independent agencies?
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Great Britain
(d) USA
Ans. (c)
19. The “Collegial” type of executive can be found in which one of the following countries?
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Switzerland
(d) Great Britain
Ans. (c)
UNIT-V
PERSONNEL ADMINISTRATION
20. Which one of the following experiments was not included in the Hawthorne experiments?
(a) Bank wiring observation room
(b) Relay assembly test room
(c) Cutting metals
(d) Greg illumination
Ans. (c)
21. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of the four basic steps in the position classification plan?
(a) Job analysis-Grouping of positions Standardization-Position allocation
(b) Standardization-Job analysis grouping of positions-Position allocation
(c) Grouping of positions -job analysis – Position allocation-Standardization
(d) Job analysis-Grouping of position-Position allocation-Standardization
Ans. (a)
22. According to W.F. Willoughby, which of the following are correct about the essentials of a sound promotion system?
1. Adoption of standard specifications setting forth the duties and qualifications required for all positions in a government service.
2. Classification of all positions into distinct classes, grades and services based on duty classification.
3. The inclusion within this classification of all administrative positions except those having a political character
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following scholars has/have not laid any marked emphasis on administrative ethics?
(a) Paul Appleby
(b) Frederick Mosher
(c) Chanakya
(d) David Osborne and Ted Gaebler
Ans. (c)
UNIT-VIII
FINANCIAL ADMINISTRATION
24. Who among the following has focused on the politics of the budgetary process?
(a) Robert Golembiewski
(b) Aaron Wildavsky
(c) Jesse Birkhead
(d) A. Premchand
Ans. (b)
25. Which of the following is/are advantage/advantages of zero-based budgeting?
1. It eliminates or minimizes the low priority programmes.
2. it improves the programme effectiveness.
3. it facilitates critical review of schemes in terms of their cost effectiveness and cost benefits.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)
UNIT-IX
UNION GOVERNMENT AND ADMINISTRATION ININDIA:
BRITISH LEGACY
26. Which one of the following is a Parliamentary Standing Committee?
(a) Draft Committee on Five Year Plan
(b) Railway Convention Committee
(c) Business Advisory Committee
(d) Joint Committee on Fertilizer
Ans. (b)
27. The legacy of British rule in India includes which of the following?
1. Creation of the ICS (Indian Civil Services)
2. Secretarial System
3. Local Self-government
4. Law and Order Administration
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)
28. Consider the following statements:
The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India comprises of
1. pension payable to Judges of High Court.
2. debt charges for which the Government of India is liable.
3. salary, allowances and pension payable to- Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)
29. Which of the following statements about separation of the Railway Budget from the General Budget of India are correct?
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with the
1. To introduce flexibility in railway finance management
2. To facilitate a business approach to the railway policy.
3. To secure stability of the general revenues by providing an assured annual contribution from railway revenues.
4. To enable the railways to keen their profits for their own development.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (c)
30. Consider the following statements:
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provision only dealing with the
1. imposition, abolition, alteration or regulation of any tax
2. regulation of the borrowing of money by the government.
3. appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
4. custody of the Contingency Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)
31. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the powers of the Parliament of India in enacting the budget?
(a) It can increase a tax, but not reduce it.
(b) It can increase a tax as well as reduce or abolish it.
(c) It can not increase a tax but can reduce or abolish it.
(d) It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it.
Ans. (c)
32. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of parliamentary debate on Appropriation Bill?
1. No amendments can be moved on the amount of expenditure.
2. Speaker is empowered to withhold permission on matters of repetitive nature.
3. Rajya Sabha has power to amend or reject the Bill.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above.
Ans. (a)
33. Which of the following is/are correct in respect of ‘Zero Hour’ discussion?
1. It is not directed against individual Minister.
2. It covers questions raised over matters of public importance.
Code:
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans. (b)
34. Through which of the following is judicial control over administration in India exercised?
1. Adjudication
2. Judicial Review
3. Writs
4. Public Interest Litigation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (d)
35. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the writ of Prohibition?
1. It is an order issued by a higher court commanding a lower court to cease from proceeding in some mailers not within its jurisdiction.
2. It can be claimed by an aggrieved party as a matter of right.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
36. Which of the following is/are not correct in respect of the Right to Information Act, 2005?
1. Information in-respect of allegation of violation of human rights can be obtained in 30 days.
2. There are restrictions for third party information.
3. Total penalty for not providing information shall not exceed Rs. 5,000.
4. Appeal against the decision of the Central/ State Public Information Officer can be made to officers of higher rank.
Code:
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (c)
37. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts has/have made the decisions of the Council of Ministers binding on the President of “India“?
(a) 42 and 44th Amendment Act
(b) 43rd Amendment Act
(c) 40th Amendment Act
(d) 40th and 41st Amendment
Ans. (a)
38. Which of the following statements with regard to the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) is/are correct?
1. The PMO was given the status of a department under the Government’s of India Allocation of Business Rules, 1961.
2. Jurisdiction of the PMO extends over all such subjects and activities as are not specially allotted to any individual department.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
39. Consider the following statements:
Indicative planning indicates the
1. broad directions of development.
2. long-term goals in strategic areas
3. exclusive areas of government planning
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 2only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a)
40. Which of the following accounts is/are not maintained by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
1 The Accounts of a State
2. The Railway Accounts
3. The Union Government Accounts
4. Defense Accounts
Code:
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (b)
41. Which one of the correct?
(a) There are two categories of Mini Ratna Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) in India.
(b) The Mini Ratna PSEs can have wholly owned subsidiaries.
(c) The Mini Ratna PSEs cannot raise capital from the international market.
(d) The Mini Ratna PSEs can induction-official directors.
Ans. (a)
42. On which of the following does the Finance Commission make recommendations to the President of India?
1. The distribution between Union and States of next proceeds of taxes and allocation between the States of their respective shares of shares of such proceeds.
2. The principles which should govern the grant- in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
43. Consider the following statements with respect to the Election Commission of India:
1. The terms of office of the Election Commissioners is the same as the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.
2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or other Election Commissioners, the matter is referred the President of India.
3. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a special provision under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
44. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
(a) The CAG has been awarded a fully independent status
(b) The CAG can only be removed on the recommendation of the President
(c) The salary and emoluments of the CAG are charged from the Consolidated Fund of India.
(d) The tenure of CAG is fixed for six years.
Ans. (b)
45. Consider the following statements with respect to duties of the Prime Minister according to the Constitution of India:
1. To make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business
2. If the President so requires, to Submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
46. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Committee/Commission Reports?
(a) Macaulay-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Islington
(b) Aitchison-Macaulay-Fulton-Islington-Lee
(c) Macaulay-Aitchison-lslington-Lee-Fulton
(d) Islington-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Macaulay
Ans. (c)
47. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Cabinet Secretary of India?
(a) The office of the Cabinet Secretary was created in the year 1950.
(b) ‘The Cabinet Secretary is the principal secretary to the Prime Minister
(c) The Cabinet Secretary provides secretarial assistance to all Cabinet Committees
(d) Tenure of the Cabinet Secretary is fixed for five years.
Ans. (d)
48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code below:
List-I List-II
A. Lord Wellesley 1. Created the post of Civil Judge
B. Warren Hastings 2. Created the office of Chief Secretary
C. William Bentinck 3. Created the office of District Collector
D. Lord Cornwallis 4. Created the post of Deputy Collector
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans. (c)
49. Consider the following statements The Prime Minister as the head of the Council of Ministers
1. has a free hand in the distribution of the Council of Ministers
2. can reshuffle the Ministers and ask any Minister to resign
3. is bound by the advice of the Ministers
4. advises the Ministers in day-to-day administration of Ministries.
Which of the given above are correct?
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
50. Assertion (A): Conventional Public Administration is based upon the dichotomy of politics and. administration.
Reason (R): Public Administration in India and Britain is opposed to any political role of civil servants.
Ans. (b)

UGC-NET Solved Question Paper -2010

Subject – History

Note – This paper contains fifty multiple choice questions, each question carrying two marks.
Attempt all of them.

1. given below are two statements one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The rise of religious movements condition of the deprive sections of the society embolden them to seek their rightful place.
Reason (R): The improved economic conditions of the deprived sections of the society embolden them to seek their rightful place.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below –
Codes:
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

2. given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Kushana period witnessed large scale cultural integration.
Reason (R): Kushana Kings advocated themselves it by example.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true.

3. Arrange the following into sequential order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Megalithic period.
(ii) Chalcolithic period.
(iii) Northern black polished ware.
(iv) Black and Red ware.
Codes:          
(a) (iii), (iv), (I), (ii)                      
(b) (ii), (iv), (I), (iii)
(c) (iv), (ii), (iii), (I)                     
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

4. Arrange the following into sequential order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Janapada                                   
(ii) Mahajanapada
(iii) Empire                                   
(iv) Jana
Codes:
(a) (ii), (iii), (I), (iv)                      
(b) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(c) (iv), (I), (ii), (iii)                      
(d) (iv), (ii), (I), (iii)

5. Arrange the followings into sequential order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Malvikagnimitra                      
(ii) Harshacharta
(iii) Ashtadhyayi                                          
(iv) Rajatarangini
Codes:
(a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (I)                      
(b) (iii), (ii), (I), (iv)
(c) (iv), (ii), (I), (iii)                      
(d) (iii), (I), (ii), (iv)

6. Which of the following is associated with the lower Paleolithic period?
(a) Home Erectus                          
(b) Neanderthal
(c) Homo Sapience                       
(d) Homo sapience sapience

7. Which among the following represents the Mesolithic period?
(a) Olduwan tools                         
(b) Hand axe
(c) Triangle tools                          
(d) polished tools

8. Which among the following denotes the Neolithic period?
(a) Kunal          
(b) Lothal         
(c) Daimabad   
(d) Chirand

9. given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Harappa civilization was developed with the application of copper tools.
Reason (R): This enabled people to make better use of the available natural resources.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes below:
Codes:
(a) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is true.           
(b) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true.                    
(d) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.

10. given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): During the Rig Vedic period the society was pastoral.
Reason (R): The mode of subsistence was primarily based on pastoralism.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is untrue, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.    
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

11. In which of the following forces it is stated that prithviraj III entertained the ambition of conquering the whole world?
(a) Taj-ul-Maasir                          
(b) Prithviraj Prabandha
(c) Tabqat-i-Nasiri                       
(d) Prithviraj Raso

12. Who among the following Delhi Sultans enlarged the Quwwat-ul-islam mosque?
(i) illtutmish                                   
(ii) Balban
(iii) Alaud-din Khilji                    
(iv) Firozshah Tughlaq
Select your answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (I), (ii), (iv)                               
(b) (I) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)                               
(d) (I), (ii), (iii)

13. Who among the following sultans of Delhi advocated the policy that “follows the middle course in realizing the Kharaj”?
(a) Balban                                       
(b) Jalalud-din Khilji
(c) Ghyasud-din Tughlaq             
(d) Firoj Tughlaq

14. Which of the following statements are not true about sultan ghyasud-din Tughlaq?
(i) He befriended sheikh Nizamuddin aulia
(ii) He gave certain concessions to Khots and Muqaddams
(iii) He sent his son Ulugh Khan to recover arrears of tribute from pratapa Rudra
(iv) He levied a tax termed haqq-i-shurb
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(a) (I), (ii) and (iii)                        
(b) (I) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)                              
(d) (ii) and (iv)

15. Who put forth the hypothesis of ‘Urban revolution’ in northern India during the thirteenth and fourteenth centuries?
(a) K. M. Ashraf                              
(b) Moreland
(c) Mohammad                              
(d) K. S. Lal

16. Arrange the following into sequential order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Pulkeshin-II                              
(ii) Pushyamitra shunga
(iii) Shankaracharya                     
(iv) Chandrabardai
Codes:
(a) (ii), (I), (iii), (iv)                      
(b) (I), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (iii), (iv), (ii), (I)                      
(d) (iv), (I), (iii), (ii)

17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(a) Levirate                                   
(b) Punch-marked coins
(c) Varmanas                                 
(d) Nalanda
List – II
(i) Kamrup                                     
(ii) Rig Veda
(iii) Bihar                                       
(iv) Early historical period
Codes:
              (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         2             3             1             4
(B)         2             4             1             3
(C)         2             3             4             1
(D)         4             3             2             1
18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(a) Second Urbanization              
(b) Kharavela
(c) Gautamiputra                          
(d) Vikramadeva Charita
List – II
1. Satavahana Dynasty                 
2. Bilhana
3. Orissa                                        
 4. Iron
Codes:
              (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         4             1             2             3
(B)         3             2             4             1
(C)         2             4             3             1
(D)         4             3             1             2

19. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(a) Nagar style of architecture    
(b) Shravanbelagola
(c) Tantrayan                                 
(d) Mahenderaverman Shailey
List – II
1. Buddhism                                   
2. Pallava dynasty
3. North India                                 
4. Karnataka
Codes:
               (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         3             4             1             2
(B)         4             1             2             3
(C)         2             4             3             1
(D)         4             3             1             2

20. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(a) Kalibanga                                 
(b) Mitathal
(c) Atranjikhera                             
(d) Jakhera
List – II
1. R. C. Gaur                                   
2. M. D. N. Sahi
3. Suraj Bhan                                 
4. B. B. Lal
Codes:
              (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         2             3             1             4
(B)         4             3             1             2
(C)         3             4             2             1
(D)         1             3             4             2

21. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The arrival of north Indian Sufis in the Deccan during the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries brought deep changes in the region’s political and religious fabric.
Reason (R): They came to the Deccan to justify Khalji and early Tughlaq invasions of the Deccan plateau.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a)    (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c)    (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d)   (A) is false but (R) is true.

22. Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the vijayanagara ruling dynasties?
(a) Saluva, Tuluva, Sangama, Aravidu
(b) Sangama, Suluva, Tuluva, Aravidu
(c) Sangama, Tuluva, Saluva, Aravidu
(d) Sangama, Aravidu, Saluva, Tuluva

23. The Portuguese captured Goa in the year –
(a) 1496            
(b) 1510            
(c) 1524            
(d) 1556

24. Arrange the following events into correct chronological order:
(i) Propagation of Vaishnavite Bhakti by Ramananda
(ii) Compilation of Adigrantha
(iii) Close of the Ibadatkhana
(iv) Foundation of the Chishti order in the Daccan
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (I), (iv), (iii), (ii)                      
(b) (I), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iv), (I), (iii)                     
(d) (iv), (I), (iii), (ii)

25. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Akbar proclaimed Dahsala in the twenty-fourth year his reign.
Reason (R): He decided to abolish all other existing methods of land revenue assessment in the Mughal empire.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a)    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c)    (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d)   (A) is false but (R) is true.

26. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(a)    The mughal conquest of Malwa
(b)   Introduction of the Ilahi Era
(c)    Annexation of Kashmir in Mughal Empire
(d)   Conquest of Odisha
List – II
1. 1584
(b) 1592            
(c) 1585            
(d) 1561

27. Which of the following illustrated manuscripts were prepared during Akbar’s time?
(a) The Diwan-i-Amir Hasan Dihlavi
(b) The Raj kanwar
(c) The Tutinama
(d) The Yoga vashista
Select your answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (I), (ii), and (iv)                       
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (I), (iii) and (iv)                       
(d) (iii) and (iv)

28. Who among the following foreign travelers described the manufacture of indigo in India?
(a) Ibn  Battuata                             
(b) Nicolo De Conti
(c) William Finch                          
(d) Peter Mundi

29. Match List – I with List – II and select the answers from the codes given below:
List – I
(a) Ahmad Yadgar
(b) Sujan Rai
(c) Khwaja Kamghar Ghairat Khan
(d) Shah Nawaz Khan
List – II
1. Maasir-i-Jahangiri                    
2. Maasir-ul-Umara
3. Tarikh-i-Salatin-i-Afghaniah  
4. Khulast-ut-Twarikh
Codes:
              (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         3            4             1             2
(B)         2             1             3             4
(C)         3             2             1             4

30. Shahu was set free from the Mughal captivity by –
(a) Aurangzeb                                
(b) Prince Azam
(c) Prince Kambakhsh                  
(d Jahandar shah

31. By which act the British Parliament had abolished the monopoly of East India Company’s trade in India?
(a) Regulating Act, 1773              
(b) Charter Act, 1813
(c) Charter Act, 1833                    
(d) Government of India Act, 1858

32. Arrange the following British Legislations concerning women in chronological order:
(i) Hindu Widow Remarriage Act
(ii) The Native Marriage Act (Civil Marriage Act)
(iii) Abolition of Sati in Bengal Province
(iv) The Age of Consent Act
Codes:
(a) (iii), (I), (ii), (iv)                      
(b) (I), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iv), (ii), (I), (iii)                      
(d) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)

33. Arrange in chronological order the Famine Commissions formed by the Government of British India:
Macdowell Commission formed by the Government of British India:
(i) Macdowell Commission         
(b) Lyall Commission
(iii) Campbell Commission         
(d) Strachey Commission
Codes:
(a) (iv), (iii), (ii), (I)                      
(b) (iii), (iv), (I), (ii)
(c) (I), (ii), (iii), (iv)                      
(d) (ii), (iii), (I), (iv)

34. Maulana Shibli Nomani belonged to the –
(a) Aligarh School                         
(b) Deoband Madarsa
(c) Firangi Mahal                          
(d) Nadwat-ul-ulema

35. Gandhiji’s intervention in the Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1917 led to the enhancement of wages of the workers by –
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 35%
(d) 40%

36. Who was known as the father of ‘Humanism’?
(a) Dante                                         
(b) Erasmus
(c) Machiavelli                              
(d) Petrarch

37. The fee paid to the Lord for the use of the mill, brewery and bakery was known as –
(a) Banalite      
(b) Corvee        
(c) Gabelle       
(d) Taille

38. The theory of ‘General Will’ was put forward by –
(a) Diderot        
(b) Montesquieu             
(c) Rousseau    
(d) Voltaire

39. Bullionism and the favourable balance of trade were the basic features of –
(a) Colonialism                             
(b) Commercialism
(c) Free Trade                                
(d) Mercantilism

40. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List – I
(a) Erasmus      
(b) Machiavelli
(c) Thomas More
(d) Dante
List – II
1. Divine Comedy                         
2. Utopia
3. The Prince                                  
4. Praise of Folly
Codes:
              (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         3            2             1             4
(B)         2             1             3             4
(C)         1             2             3             4
(D)         4             3             2             1

41. The chief grievance of the peasants in Champaran Satyagraha (1917) was against the –
(a) A wabs or illegal cesses
(b) Oppression of the landlords
(c) Land revenue demand
(d) Tinkathia system

42. In which Session the Indian National Congress adopted the resolution on Fundamental Rights?
(a) Madras (1927)                         
(b) Lahore (1929)
(c) Karachi (1931)                        
(d) Faizpur (1936)

43. Who argued that de-industrialization did not take place in India under the colonial rule?
(a) Amiyo Baghchi                        
(b) Bipan Chandra
(c) Morris D Morris                      
(d) Toru Matsui

44. Who founded the Hindu College of Calcutta in 1817?
(a) David Hare                               
(b) William Jones
(c) H. T. Princep                                           
(d) Henry Vivian Derozio

45. Match List – I with List – II and select correct answer.
List – I
(a) Maulana Abul kalam Azad    
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan                           
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
List – I
1. The Indian Struggle
2. Asbab-i-Bhagawt-i-Hind
3. Poverty and Un-British Rule in India
4. India wins freedom
Codes:
               (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         4             3             2             1
(B)         3             2             1             4
(C)         2             4             3             1
(D)         1             2             3             4

46. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer.
List – I
(a) Chinnava                                  
(b) Haji Shariat Ullah
(c) Alluri Sitaram Raju                 
(d) Krishna Daji Pandit
List – II
1. Rampa Uprising 1922             
2. Gadkari Revolt 1944
3. Faraizi Movement 1838                          
4. Dittur Uprising 1924
Codes:
                (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         4             3             1             2
(B)         3             4             1             2
(C)         1             2             3             4
(D)         2             1             4             3

47. Paramountcy is the position of permanent power enjoyed by the British Government in relation to the –
(a) Zamindars                                
(b) Princely states
(c) Peasants                                    
(d) Christian Missionaries

48. The Congress Ministry in Madras during 1937-39 was headed by –
(a) T. Prakasham                                          
(b) Subramanium Bharti
(c) C. Rajgopalachari                    
(d) K. Kamraj

49. Who was the Chairman of the Crafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad                
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) B. N. Rau                                  
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

50. Arrange the following events in their chronological order:
(i) Cripps Mission                         
(ii) Quit India Movement
(iii) Individual Satyagraha           
(iv) August Offer
(a) I, ii, iii, iv                                  
(b) iv, iii, I, ii
(c) iii, iv, ii, I                                  
(d) ii, I, iv, iii



Answers:


1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
A
D
B
C
B
A
C
D
C
D
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
A
B
C
*
C
A
B
D
A
B
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
C
B
B
D
C
B
D
C
A
B
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
B
A
*
D
A
D
A
C
B
A
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
A
C
C
A
A
A
B
*
B
B

UGC-NET/JRF Examination, 2010


Sociology
Paper-II
(Exam Held on June 2010) 


1. Who among the following authors initially used the term ‘social physics’ for Sociology?
(A) Spencer
(B) Comte
(C) Tonnies
(D) Weber
Ans : (B)

2. An author thought of ‘society to be consisting in the conscious-ness of kind’.
Identify from among the following—
(A) Cooley
(B) Ward
(C) Simmel
(D) Giddings
Ans : (D)

3. What does the social relationship primarily involve ?
(A) Institutions
(B) Religion
(C) Consciousness of other people
(D) Associations
Ans : (C)


4. A group organised to achieve a certain purpose is known as which among the following ?
(A) Institution
(B) Community
(C) Association
(D) State
Ans : (C)

5. Who among the following thought of religion to an opium of the people ?
(A) Freud
(B) Mosca
(C) Marx
(D) Durkheim
Ans : (C)

6. Who said : “Civilization is always advancing but not culture.” ?
(A) Johnson
(B) MacIver
(C) Toynbee
(D) Berger
Ans : (B)

7. Match the authors (List-I) with their books (List-II)—
List-I(a) MacIver
(b) Davis
(c) Berger
(d) Bierstedt
List-II
1. Invitation to Sociology
2. Society
3. The Social Order
4. Human Society
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (D)

8. Which is the basic distinction between culture and civilization ?
(A) Culture is what we have achieved and civilization is what we aspire to achieve
(B) Culture is what comes out of intelligence but civilization is what comes out of experience
(C) Culture is secondary but civilization is primary
(D) Culture is what we are and civilization is what we have
Ans : (D)

9. Ceremonies that mark a critical transition in the life of an individual from one phase of life-cycle to another are called—
(A) Role-taking
(B) Rites of Passage
(C) Status Crystallization
(D) Status set
Ans : (B)

10. Who among the following gave the concept of anticipatory socialisation ?
(A) Merton
(B) Parsons
(C) Homans
(D) Sumner
Ans : (A)

11. Read the following two statements (A) Assertion and (R) Reason, and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : Monogamy is the most common form of marriage in the contemporary society.
Reason (R) : Status of women gets enhanced only through monogamy.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

12. Match List-I with List-II by using the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Ingroup and outgroup
(b) Primary and secondary group
(c) Gemeinschaft and Gesellschaft
(d) Closed and open groups
List-II1. Homans
2. Tonnies
3. Cooley
4. Summer
5. Durkheim
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (B)

13. When a girl of the higher caste marries a boy of the lower caste, the system is known as—
(A) Levirate
(B) Anuloma
(C) Sororate
(D) Pratiloma
Ans : (D)

14. In the matriarchal family the position of a Woman is recognised to be supreme in all matters.
Which of the following is not its characteristic ?
(A) Descent is reckoned through mother
(B) Marriage relations are not permanent
(C) Wife lives in the house of her husband
(D) Property is inheritable by the females
Ans : (C)

15. Who has given the concept of atomistic family ?
(A) Murdock
(B) Zimmerman
(C) Durkheim
(D) Warner
Ans : (B)

16. Match List-I (Rules of Restriction) with List-II (Name of Rule) and select the correct answer using the code given below the list—
List-I
(a) One should seek a spouse from outside one’s descent group.
(b) Women of the higher caste cannot marry men of lower caste.
(c) One should marry only within one’s caste group.
(d) The men of higher caste could marry women of lower caste.
List-II1. Pratiloma
2. Exogamy
3. Anuloma
4. Endogamy
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (D)

17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I (Authors)
(a) Peter Worsley
(b) W. W. Rostow
(c) Andre Gunder Frank
(d) Reinhard Bendix
List-II (Books)
1. The Stages of Economic Growth
2. Under development or Revolution
3. The Third World
4. Nation Building and Citizenship : Studies of Our Changing Social Order
5. Asian Drama
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 5 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 1 2 5
Ans : (B)

18. There is a lot of difference between ancient and modern bureaucracies. Which factor among the following does not denote this difference ?
(A) Greater specialization of functions
(B) Vastness of modern bureaucracy
(C) Dominant aspect of society
(D) Hierarchy of command
Ans : (D)

19. The ‘looking glass self’ means that we learn who we are—
(A) By self feeling
(B) By an act of imitation
(C) By other people’s experience with us
(D) By imaging ourselves to be someone else
Ans : (A)

20. The ‘super ego’ according to Freud represents the part of an individual’s personality that was created—
(A) Through socialization during the formative years
(B) Through socialization in the old age
(C) Through socialization process which occurs throughout one’s life
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

21. Which one of the following is not a functional utility of social stratification ?
(A) It helps in providing opportunities
(B) It develops a spirit of struggle
(C) It helps in deciding responsibility of everyone in the society
(D) It helps in identifying unsuitable persons in society
Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following theories makes us believe that caste system is not of human but of divine origin ?
(A) Racial theory
(B) Political theory
(C) Occupational theory
(D) Traditional theory
Ans : (D)

23. Which one of the following is an essential element of the social class ? Feeling of—
(A) Equality among the members of a class
(B) Superiority against those who are at the lower ladder of status
(C) Inferiority against those who are at the higher ladder of status
(D) All the above
Ans : (A)

24. Consider the following statements—
Sanskritization is the process of—
1. Orthogenetic change
2. Heterogenetic change
3. Change in cultural structure
4. Change in social structure
Which of the statement given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : (C)

25. Which of the following concepts are applied to analyse the process of civilization change ?
(A) Gemeinschaft and Gesellschaft
(B) Zweckrational and Wertrational
(C) Mechanical and Organic Solidarity
(D) Sensate and Ideational Culture
Ans : (D)

26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list—
List-I
(a) Ethnic
(b) Reform
(c) Secessionist
(d) Subnational
List-II
1. Naga Movement
2. Jharkhand Movement
3. Birsa Movement
4. Bhakti Movement
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (B)

27. Who propounded the theory of ‘Internal Structure of Role’ ?
(A) Radcliffe Brown
(B) Nadel
(C) Levistrauss
(D) Murdock
Ans : (B)

28. Who among the following formulated the theory of ‘Middle Class’ within the Marxian frame-work ?
(A) Collins
(B) Coser
(C) Dahrendorf
(D) Engles
Ans : (C)

29. According to Radcliffe-Brown, which of the following does not contribute to the integration and survival of the society ?
(A) Kinship system
(B) Leadership
(C) Lineage
(D) Rituals
Ans : (B)

30. Which of the following requisites is not applicable to symbolic system of Malinowski ?
(A) Production and distribution of consumer goods
(B) Social control and regulation of behaviour
(C) Organisation and execution of authority
(D) Communal rhythm in daily life and activities
Ans : (C)

31. In which of the following statements, Durkheim has identified the indirect functions of crime ?
(A) Collective sentiment against the infringement of norms
(B) Fear of punishment
(C) Flexibility in society
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

32. Who has advocated that functional analysis need not be con-fined to society as a whole but it can be extended to an organisation, institution or group ?
(A) Levistrauss
(B) Malinowski
(C) Parsons
(D) Merton
Ans : (C)

33. There are two statements, one Assertion (A) and other is Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : Social analysis of action is ultimately concerned with individuals and not collectivities.
Reason (R) : Collectivities are treated as solely the resultants and modes of organisation of particular acts of individuals and hence these alone can be treated as agents in a course of subjectively understandable action.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

34. Which of the following is applicable to Pareto’s Logical Action ?
(A) Subjectively logical action
(B) Objectively logical action
(C) Both subjectively and objectively logical action
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following is associated with basic principles of symbolic interaction ?
(A) People cannot modify the symbols us ed in interaction
(B) People can modify the symbols used in interaction based on subjective understanding
(C) People are able to modify or alter the symbols used in interaction based on the interpretation of situation
(D) People can modify symbols used in interaction based on the capacity to think
Ans : (C)

36. According to Marx, which of the following is considered to be the most crucial element for class struggle ?
(A) Class interest
(B) Class consciousness
(C) Class formation
(D) Class identity
Ans : (B)

37. Who was the first to use the comparative method or indirect experiment method in Sociology?
(A) Max Weber
(B) Emile Durkheim
(C) Herbert Spencer
(D) V. Pareto
Ans : (B)

38. Who has used ‘participant observation’ method for collection of data ?
(A) A. R. Radcliffe Brown
(B) B. Malinowski
(C) S. C. Dube
(D) N. K. Bose
Ans : (B)

39. Who has written on ‘objectivity’ in his methodological writings ?
(A) W. Dilthey
(B) Emile Durkheim
(C) Max Weber
(D) Daya Krishna
Ans : (B)

40. Match List-I with List-II and mark the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Books)
(a) Rules of Sociological Method
(b) Statistical Reasoning in Sociology
(c) Methodology of Social Sciences
(d) Methods in Social Research
List-II (Authors)
1. Goode and Hatt
2. Max Weber
3. Schuessler and Mueller
4. Emile Durkheim
5. P. F. Lazarsfeld
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (D)

41. Who has propounded the idea that we can treat social facts (phenomena) as things ?
(A) R. K. Merton
(B) Paul F. Lazarsfeld
(C) Emile Durkheim
(D) Max Weber
Ans : (C)

42. Which type of question(s) are investigated in exploratory research design ?
(A) Why is it ?
(B) What is it ?
(C) How is it ?
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

43. Which method is more suitable for collecting data from non-literate communities ?
(A) Questionnaire
(B) Observation
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

44. Purpose of case study method is—
(A) To generalize about relation-ships
(B) To explore desired relation-ships of a phenomenon
(C) To explore maximum possible relationships of a phenomenon
(D) To relate it to select relation-ships of a phenomenon
Ans : (C)

45. Which average can be calculated from an open ended table ?
(A) Median and Mode
(B) Mode and Mean
(C) Mean and Median
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

46. When one variable is qualitative and another variable is quantitative, which measure will be for finding covariation between them ?
(A) Yule’s (Q)
(B) Phi coefficient (Φ)
(C) Rank correlation (P)
(D) Chi square (χ2)
Ans : (D)

47. Match List-I with List-II and mark the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :
List-I(a) Participant Observation
(b) Social Facts
(c) Versetehen
(d) Middle range theory
List-II1. Max Weber
2. R. K. Merton
3. Emile Durkheim
4. A. R. Radcliffe-Brown
5. W. F. Whyte
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 5 3 1 2
(B) 4 3 2 5
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 2 1 5
Ans : (A)

48. Which of the following methods is known as probability sampling ?
(A) A sample selected by lottery from the totality
(B) A sample selected of those who were available
(C) A sample selected considering the purpose of research
(D) A sample selected by considering the various categories of respondents
Ans : (A)

49. Which one of the following statistics will be used to find out covariation between two qualitative variables ?
(A) Phi (Φ)
(B) Yule’s Q
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

50. In which one of the following concepts has M. N. Srinivas explained caste mobility as a process of Social and Cultural change ?
(A) Sanskritization
(B) Secularization
(C) Westernization
(D) Modernization
Ans : (A)