University of Kerala, Ph.D/M.Sc(Engg) by research Admissions 2012

University of Kerala
Thiruvananthapuram

Ph.D/M.Sc(Engg) by research, 2012


Applications are invited by Kerala University in the prescribed form, from eligible candidates for registration to Full-time/Part-time research, leading to Ph.D../M.Sc. (Engineering) by research degree of the University, for the January 2012 session, subject to availability of vacancies.

Candidates shall carry out their research under approved guide or guides in a University Department or in a Department of a college recognised as research centre or in a recognised research institution.

Eligibility:

A. Candidates to be considered eligible to apply for registration for Ph.D. research should have:
(i) Masters degree or its equivalent with not less than 55% marks.
(ii) Qualified in the Entrance Test conducted by this University or National Eligibility Test conducted by the UGC/CSIR/ICAR/ICMR or GATE or State Level Eligibility Test conducted by the Kerala Government or Fellowship awarded by the KSCSTE or M.Phil degree by research and thesis. The M.Phil Degree shall be in the concerned discipline in which the applicant is seeking registration.

B. For M.Sc. (Engineering by research), the candidate should have:
(i) Bachelors Degree in Engineering with not less than 55% marks
(ii) Qualified in the GATE or Entrance Test conducted by this University or State Level Eligibility Test conducted by the Kerala Government.

Relaxation of marks:
Candidates with a minimum of ten years' teaching experience at a College or University are eligible for a relaxation of 5% marks. However, in no cases a candidate having less than 50% marks will be granted registration.

Not withstanding the above, candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes who have secured 45% marks in Science subjects and 40% marks in Arts and Commerce subjects can apply for registration for Ph.D. research, provided they satisfy the other eligibility requirements stipulated in this notification. Physically/visually challenged candidates are eligible for a relaxation of 5% marks for registration for research leading to Ph.d. Degree.

Exemption from entrance test:
(i) College/University teachers with seven or more years of teaching experience and candidates with D.M/M.Ch. Degree are exempted from the Entrance Test.
(ii) Scientists/Engineers working in approved Research Laboratories either owned or managed by the Central/State Government or in Autonomous Research
Institutions of National Status, with seven years experience in the Grade Scientist/Engineer having two research papers published in the recognised research journals of the concerned subject approved by the Board of Studies concerned, are exempted from the Ph.D. Entrance Test.
(iii) Candidates with DBT-JRF are exempted from the Ph.D. Entrance Test and they are permitted to register for research leading to Ph.D. Degree in Biotechnology.
(iv) Scientists/Ayurveda Doctors working in Pharmaceuticals/Hospitals/Research Centres owned by Government with 7 years experience and having 2 research
papers published are exempted from the Ph.D. Entrance Test.

Part-time registration:

Part-time Ph.D. registration shall be restricted to regular/permanent teachers in the concerned subjects, of the Departments and affiliated Colleges of the University of Kerala. Part-time registration is also extended to teachers who are working in substantive vacancies in Government and Aided Colleges in the State of Kerala.

However, the facility of part-time Ph.D. registration in
(1) Library and Information Science is also extended to those who are working as Library Staff in the University of Kerala on regular basis with a minimum of 3 years experience, if all other conditions are satisfied and (2)Management Studies is extended to those working in managerial position with a minimum of 3 years experience in Government/Public Sector undertakings, provided all other conditions are satisfied. Applications for part-time registration should be accompanied by a No Objection Certificate from the appointing authority and stating that they are appointed on a regular basis in the College/Department.

How to apply:
Applications and other details can be downloaded from the Web site www.keralauniversity.ac.in or can be obtained from the Section Officer, Forms Section,
University of Kerala, Thiruvananthapuram directly or by post on request with sufficiently stamped envelope and demand draft/chalan for Rs.10/-

Duly filled in applications should be accompanied by a Chalan Receipt/Demand Draft of Rs.500/- as registration fee. All remittance made by demand Drafts should be drawn in favour of the Finance Officer, University of Kerala, Thiruvananthapuram. The drafts drawn on S.B.T. Branches payable at S.B.T. Service Branch, Thiruvananthapuram and on District Co-operative Banks payable at State Co-operative Bank, Head Office Branch, Thiruvananthapuram alone will be accepted from candidates residing within the State. Those residing outside the State may submit S.B.I. Drafts payable at S.B. I. Main Branch, Thiruvananthapuram.

Candidates who select University Departments as their research centres shall send their applications to the Head of the Department concerned. Candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes shall send a copy of their application to the Registrar also. Those who select recognised Research Institutions/Departments of affiliated colleges shall send their applications to the Registrar.

The last date for receipt of applications is 15.01.2012
For details, logon to:
http://www.keralauniversity.ac.in/images/Downloads1/phd_msc_notification.pdf

Bhabha Atomic Research Centre, Ph.D. Program - 2012

Government of India
DEPARTMENT OF ATOMIC ENERGY (DAE)
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre


Ph.D. Program - 2012
If you are looking for an opportunity to pursue Ph.D. in frontline areas in Basic Sciences in stateof-the-art laboratories then BARC is the place for you!

Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) is a premier Institution for Research & Development (R&D) in Nuclear Science & Technology in particular and Physical, Chemical, Life and Engineering Sciences in general. The Centre has not only been the backbone of the Indian Nuclear Energy Program, but also hasbeen in the forefront of research in basic sciences as well as engineering sciences. Several of its stateof-the-art laboratories and research facilities are unique to it.

BARC conducts a Ph.D. program in basic Sciences such as Physical, Chemical and Life Science under the aegis of Homi Bhabha National Institute (HBNI), a Deemed to be University. The Ph.D. program at BARC consists of course work of one academic year duration followed by research work.

BARC invites applications for its Ph.D. programme in Science Disciplines commencing in August 2012 under the aegis of HBNI. A limited number of Junior Research Fellowships (JRFs), awarded by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), will be offered to those selected for the Ph.D. program. DAE fellowship is tenable for four years. The fellowship amount is `16,000/- per month for first and second year, and `18,000/- per month for subsequent years besides house rent allowance and medical benefits as per rules. The selection process for the PhD program of BARC is identical with that of the OCES/DGFS program of the BARC Training Schools. For information about the latter please visit http://oces.hbni.ac.in/ . The selected candidates can also pursue the Ph.D. program with fellowships from other sources like UGC-CSIR, DBT, ICAR, ICMR and other national agencies. A few meritorious candidates may be offered DAE Graduate Fellowship Scheme-Ph.D. (DGFS - Ph.D.) Fellowship. It carries a fellowship of ` 20,000/- p.m. in the first year and ` 24,000/- p.m. in succeeding years.

Selection Process :
Selection for the Ph.D. program is a two-step process: Written Test screening to short-list candidates followed by a Selection Interview of short-listed candidates.
Screening for Physical, Chemical and Life Sciences shall be on the basis of one of the following: (i) GATE-2011/GATE-2012 score or (ii) Written Test-2012 score of the BARC Training School.


BARC Training School Written Test: It is conducted for short-listing candidates for interview for admission to BARC Training Schools (BARC TS). Those who have also applied for admission toBARC TS and have opted for its written test to seek admission to the OCES/DGFS-2012 program of the BARC TS must state their BARC TS application number on the accompanying application form else their application is liable to be rejected. For details about OCES/DGFS-2012 program of BARC TS, visit http://oces.hbni.ac.in/.

BARC Training School Written Test in Science disciplines will be held on Sunday, February 26, 2012 at the centres listed in Table-1.

Short-listed candidates shall be called for interview to be conducted in May - June, 2012 at the BARC Training School, Anushaktinagar, Mumbai - 400 094. List of shortlisted candidates and their interview dates will be displayed on the website http://oces.hbni.ac.in/ on April 10, 2012 .

Outstation applicants called for interview will be paid to and fro sleeper class train fare by shortest route, or actual fare, whichever is less.

Eligibility
a. Qualifying Degree and other academic qualifications:
Those having M.Sc. in Physics/ Chemistry/ Biology or related science subjects with minimum 60%* marks in MSc as well as in BSc are eligible to apply. Applicants for Physics discipline should have Physics and Mathematics up to BSc or at subsidiary and/or ancillary level in case of five years integrated MSc. Applicants for Chemistry discipline should have Mathematics up to XII std and Physics up to BScor at subsidiary and/or ancillary level in case of five years integrated MSc. Applicants in Physics and Chemistry opting to be considered on the basis of GATE Score should have a valid GATE Score in Physics and Chemistry respectively. For Biology and related disciplines MSc in Agriculture, Biochemistry, Microbiology, Molecular Biology, Biotechnology, Genetics, Botany, Zoology, Plant Science, Plant Breeding, Plant Pathology, Entomology, Food Technology, Animal Science, Life Sciences and Biosciences. MSc applicants in Life Sciences should have Physics or Chemistry or Biochemistry or Agriculture Chemistry up to BSc or at subsidiary and/or ancillary level in case of five year integrated MSc with minimum of 60%* aggregate marks in MSc as well as in BSc. Applicants in life sciences opting to be considered on the basis of GATE Score should have valid GATE Score in Life Sciences or Biotechnology. Those having MSc with specialization in subjects like Fisheries, Horticulture, Forestry, Agronomy, Animal Husbandry, Marine Biology and Home Science etc and BE/BTech/MTech in Biotechnology/Genetic Engineering are not eligible.

*A minimum of 60% marks means the marks as per the ordinance of the respective university.
Those whose final results of qualifying degree are awaited can also apply. In the event of selection, mark sheet of final result confirming eligibility as above, should be submitted by Nov 30, 2012.

b. Age limit: The candidates desirous of availing DAE Junior Research Fellowships should have been born on or after August 1, 1986. Age limit is relaxable by three years for OBC and by five years for SC/ST applicants. Physically challenged persons are eligible for an age relaxation of 10 years over and above their respective category.

c. Nationality: Applicant must be a citizen of India.


How to Apply:
Make two copies of the accompanying application form, affix a passport size photo on each and mail to:
BARC-Ph.D. Programme-2012,
DEO, Recruitment-IV,
Training School Complex,
Anushaktinagar, Mumbai - 400 094.

The application enables you to register for the OCES/DGFS-2012 Written Test of BARC Training School (BARC TS). In case you opt for it, a letter of admission to the Written Test Centre of your choice fromTable-1 will be mailed to you. However, even if you do not receive admission letter, you can proceed to your chosen test center with a copy of the application and proof of mailing it.

Table-1: Written Test Centre Code for BARC Training School Written Test (OCES/DGFS-2012)
Centre---Code
Ahmedabad 01 Coimbatore 06 Jaipur 11 Patna 16
Bengaluru 02 Delhi 07 Kolkata 12 Roorkee 17
Bhubaneswar 03 Guwahati 08 Lucknow 13 Thiruvananthapuram 18
Chandigarh 04 Hyderabad 09 Mumbai 14 Varanasi 19
Chennai 05 Indore 10 Nagpur 15

Those who wish to apply only on the basis of GATE-2012 should apply only after declaration of GATE-2012 result. Candidates who have opted to take the Science Written Test and who also wish to be considered on the basis of their GATE Score, can also submit their GATE score at a later date to the address mentioned above. All candidates who have appeared for BARC TS Written Test should mention
the Application Number allotted to them while communicating their GATE score


Important Dates
Last date of receipt of application for those opting for written test in Science Disciplines 16.1.2012
Written Test 26.2.2012
Last date of receipt of application for those not opting for written test and receipt of GATE Score 31.3.2012
Interview Schedule to be displayed on website 25.4.2012
Selection Interview 22.5.2012 onwards
Download BARC-PhD-2012 Application Form
http://oces.hbni.ac.in/download_phdForm.php

CSIR NET Chemistry Modl Papers

Click here for CSIR NET Chemistry Previous Model Paper 1
Click here for CSIR NET Chemistry Previous Model Paper 2

Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management (IIIT-M), Gwalior

Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management (IIIT-M), Gwalior
ABV-IIITM, Morena Link Road, Gwalior-474015

Ph.D Admissions 2011-2012
Indian Institute of Information Technology & Management (IIIT&M), Gwalior has invited applications for admission to PhD Programme in the following areas for the session 2011-12:

VLSI / Microelectronics, Computer Architecture, Algorithms, Image Processing, Robotics, Communication, Networks, Mobile Computing, Grid Computing, Information Security, Soft Computing, Data Mining, Database / WEB / Multimedia Technologies, Distributed Computing, Analytics.

Operations, Marketing, Finance, Information Systems Management, Human Resource Management / Organisation Behavoiur, Business Economics, e-Governance, Environment Management, Public Private Partnership, Management of Informal Sector, International Business .

Applied Physics (Material and Device Modelling, Computational Nano sciences and Technologies) & Applied Mathematics (Reliability, Applied Statistics, Soft Computing Applications, Optimization, Cryptography, Modelling and Simulation)

Eligibility:
Engineering and Technology:
Master’s Degree in Engineering in the areas related to CSE / IT / E&C or equivalent with Engineering background having 1st division or equivalent CGPA. MSc / MCA in addition to BE / BTech as a prior qualification of ME / MTech. Preference shall be given to candidates with GATE qualification.

Management:
Candidates must possess first class master’s degree or equivalent CGPA in Management or in any branch of Engineering or Technology OR First class master degree or equivalent CGPA in Science, Operations Research, Computer Science, Economics or Commerce with Mathematics or Statistics at the bachelor level. Preference shall be given to candidates with CAT / JMET qualification. NET / SLET / GATE score is mandatory for candidate with MSc / MCom / MA qualifications. Reputed International Journal Publication is required for candidate with MSc / MCom / MA with M Phil qualification.

Applied Sciences:
Master of Science in Physics, Mathematics / MSc in Electronics / Nanotechnology; MTech / MPhil in material Science / Nanotechnology / Computational Physics / Computational Mathematics having 1st division or equivalent CGPA. NET / GATE qualification is compulsory for MSc candidates. Reputed International Journal Publication is required for candidate with M Phil qualification.

Desirable Qualifications:
Candidates with any one degree (Bachelors / Masters) from any National Institute of importance / NITs etc. will be preferred. Candidates having done Post Graduation with assistantship / fellowship will be preferred.

Applications:
Download the application form from www.iiitm.ac.in
Candidates MUST specify broad areas of research in the application form.
Super scribe the envelop 'APPLICATION For PhD Admission'
Mail the application to Assistant Registrar, ABV-IIITM, Morena Link Road, Gwalior-474015 latest by 14th December 2011. Enclose a demand draft of Rs. 500/- (Rs. 250/-for SC/ST/PH candidates) drawn in favor of 'Director, ABV-IIITM, Gwalior' payable at Gwalior.

Written Test / Interview - 3rd January 2012

For further details, logon to the link:
http://www.iiitm.ac.in/sites/default/files/PhD%20Advertisement%202011.pdf

INDIAN SCHOOL OF MINES, DHANBAD

INDIAN SCHOOL OF MINES, DHANBAD-826004
(Declared as deemed to-be-University U/S 3 of the UGC Act, 1956 vide Notification
No-F11-4/67-U3, dated 18.9.1967 of Govt. of India)

No-613002/JRF(Ph.D)/Acad/2011-12
Date: 18th November 2011

ADMISSION NOTICE FOR
ISM JRF ( Ph.D Programme ) Session 2011-12

ISM proposes to enroll 70 full time JRF (Ph.D. programme) in academic session 2011-12. The disciplines and admission procedure are as follows:

Engineering: Fuel/Mineral/Mining/Mechanical/Mining Machinery/Petroleum/Electrical/ Computer Science & Engineering/ Electronics Engineering/ Industrial Engg & Management/ Environmental Science & Engineering
Science: Applied Geology/Applied Geophysics/Physics/Chemistry/Mathematics/ Statistics/ Computer Science/ Environmental Science Management
Humanities and Social Sciences: Philosophy and English

Admission Procedure: GATE/NET Qualified Candidates (through direct interview)/ GATE/ NET not-Qualified Candidates (through a written test to be conducted by ISM at Dhanbad, Kolkata, Varanasi, Bhubaneswar and Delhi Centres followed by interview).

The application form, eligibility criteria and information brochure will be available on our website http://www.ismdhanbad.ac.in/admissions/phd_notice.htm from 25.11.2011.

The application form will be filled online. Candidates are required to send a copy of the filled application form alongwith a DD for Rs 1000/-(non-refundable) drawn in favour of Registrar, Indian School of Mines payable at Dhanbad so as to reach the Deputy Registrar (Acad & SW), Indian School of Mines, Dhanbad-826004, Jharkhand not later than 15.12.2011.

[Col. (Retd.) M K Singh]
Registrar
ISM admits Junior Research Fellows( JRFs ) for Ph.D. programme through GATE/Written Test and Interview .


ADMISSION NOTICE FOR ISM JRF-2011 ( Ph.D Programme Click

ISM JRF-2011 ( Ph.D Programme ) Information Brochure Click
ISM JRF-2011 ( Ph.D Programme ) Syllabus Click
Online filling of ISM JRF-2011 ( Ph.D Programme ) application form Click

Application form for self-sponsored candidates having age more than 30 years to be downloaded ,filled and sent manually before 20.12.2011 Click

Ph.D. Registration form [ To be filled by the candidates after admission into Ph.D. Programme both FULL / PART TIME ] Click

Joint Entrance Screening Test (JEST) 2012 - admissions to Ph.D. in Physics

Joint Entrance Screening Test (JEST) 2012

JEST

The Joint Entrance Screening Test (JEST) is a common qualifying test for admissions to Ph.D. programmes in Physics at premier Indian research institutions (see Participating Institutes) and a Ph.D. programme in Theoretical Computer Science at the Institute of Mathematical Sciences.

Using JEST results, each institute will call a limited number of candidates for its own selection procedure depending, on its requirements. All selected candidates will receive Research Fellowships from the respective institutes. The JEST exam is used to shortlist candidates and does not automatically entitle an applicant to get a Research Fellowship.


Eligibility

Ph.D. Programme

Physics:

M.Sc. in Physics or M.Sc. / M.E. / M.Tech. in related disciplines.
M.Sc. in Mathematics / Applied Physics / Applied Mathematics / Optics and Photonics / Instrumentation / Electronics will also be considered at IIA.
B.E. or B.Tech. will also be considered at IISc, IMSc, IUCAA, JNCASR, NCRA-TIFR RRI, IISER Mohali, IISER Pune, IISER Thiruvananthapuram and SNBNCBS.
Talented final year B.Sc. and first year M.Sc. in Physics / Electronics / Astronomy / Applied Mathematics students may also apply to be pre-selected for research scholarship at IUCAA.
MSc in Physics, Engineering Physics or Applied Physics will also be considered at IPR.
Theoretical Computer Science:
M.Sc./ M.E. / M.Tech. / M.C.A. in Computer Science and related disciplines, and should be interested in the mathematical aspects of computer science. Visit website of IMSc for further details.
Integrated M.Sc. / M.Tech - Ph.D Programme

At HRI, IISER-Pune, SNBNCBS, and NCRA-TIFR candidates with a Bachelor's degree will also be considered for the integrated M.Sc., Ph.D. programme in Physics.
At IMSc, graduates with Bachelor’s degree in science/ mathematics/ /statistics /computer science/information technology/Engineering will also be considered for admission in Physics and in Theoretical Computer Science, as part of an integrated Ph.D. programme. All candidates successful in the course work of this programme shall be awarded an M.Sc. degree.
At SNBNCBS, graduates with B.Sc. (Physics) / B.E. / B.Tech. degree will be considered for the integrated Post-B.Sc.-Ph.D. programme in subject areas mentioned above.
At IIA, graduates with B.Sc. (Physics / Mathematics) / B.E. / B.Tech. in Electrical / Instrumentation / Engineering Physics / Electronics and Communications / Computer Science and Engineering / Optics and Photonics will be considered.
Integrated M.Tech - Ph.D. Programme at IIA

Graduates with M.Sc. (Physics / Applied Physics) / Post-B.Sc. (Hons) in Optics and Optoelectronics / Radio Physics and Electronics / B.E. / B.Tech. degree in subjects mentioned above will be considered. Visit IIA website for details.

ApplyApplications for the JEST exam can be made online or by ordinary post.
To apply by post, please write to JEST 2012, Department of Physics, Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore 560012 before 5th December, 2011.
To apply online, applicants must create an account using a valid e-mail ID. This account will remain valid from the time of account creation till one month after the date of declaration of results, for that year. Email ids are locked to the created account and to the application, and will be used for all communications with the applicants. Therefore, the email id should be active and must not be changed during this period.
To submit online application, applicants must login to the created account and complete the application form. After submission, an unique submission number will be issued. This number must be quoted by the applicant for any communication with the JEST authorities.
An Application Fee of Rs. 100 (Rs 50 for SC/ST applicants) is required to be paid into theBank Account details provided here.
The fee can be paid either before or after the online submission. The payment receipt/counterfoil/challan, including the applicants name and unique submission number, must be returned to the JEST authorities, before 20.12.2011, by either of the following means:
scanned copy of counterfoil/challan/receipt, with name and unique submission number, emailed to jest12@physics.iisc.ernet.in
hard copy of counterfoil/challan/receipt, with name and unique submission number, sent by post to JEST2012, Department of Physics, Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore 560012
CLICK HERE TO APPLY ONLINE.

Participating Institutes
Visit the individual institute pages to view the programmes and subject areas being offered.
ARIES
Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences, Nainital: Astronomy and Astrophysics, and Atmospheric Physics.
HBNI
Homi Bhabha National Institute, Mumbai
HRI
Harish-Chandra Research Institute, Allahabad: Theoretical Physics, Astrophysics
IGCAR
Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research, Kalpakkam: Materials Science, Condensed Matter (Experimental and Theoretical), Radiation Damage and Accelerator-based Research, Sensors andApplications, Science and Technology of Nanomaterials, Computational Materials Science, Reactor Physics, Radiation Physics and Atmospheric Science.
IIA
Indian Institute of Astrophysics, Bangalore: Astronomy and Astrophysics, Astronomical Instrumentation, Optics, and Atomic Physics.
IISc
Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore: Condensed Matter Physics (Experiments and Theory), Astronomy and Astrophysics (Theoretical), Atomic and Optical Physics (Experimental), Biocrystallographyand Bio-informatics, and High Energy Physics (Theoretical).
IISER MOHALI
Indian Institute of Science Education and Research, Mohali:Quantum Theory, Quantum Information Processing, NMR-Methodology, Optics, Statistical Mechanics, QuantumThermodynamics, Non-linear Dynamics, String Theory, Ultrafast Physics, and Low Temperature Mesoscopic Physics.
IISER PUNE
Indian Institute of Science Education and Research, Pune: Field Theory, Theoretical Particle Physics, Condensed Matter Physics, Non-linear Dynamics, Complex Systems and Networks,Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy, Quantum Information Processing, Radio Astrophysics, Atomic Physics and Quantum Optics, Energy Studies, Solar and Plasma Physics, Nanosciences,Scanning Probe Techniques, and Semiconductor Physics and Devices.
IISER THIRUVANANTHAPURAM
Indian Institute of Science Education and Research, Thiruvananthapuram: Experimental Condensed Matter: Magnetic and Superconducting materials,Nanoscience and Energy materials, Photonics, Soft Condensed Matter, Semiconductor Physics and Devices, Surface Sciences and Nano-scale Plasmonics, Terahertz and Ultrafast Spectroscopy; Theory:Cosmology, Classical and Quantum Gravity, Gravitational Wave Physics, Quantum Information Theory, Quantum Field Theory, and Statistical Physics.
IMSc
The Institute of Mathematical Sciences, Chennai: Theoretical Physics, and Theoretical Computer Science.
IOP
Institute of Physics, Bhubaneswar: Physics (Condensed Matter, Nuclear and High Energy Physics) and Accelerator-based Research.
IPR
Institute for Plasma Research, Gandhinagar: Physics (Experimental and Theoretical).
IUCAA
Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics, Pune:Physics, Astronomy and Astrophysics.
JNCASR
Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research, Bangalore: Experimental and Theoretical Condensed Matter Physics, Statistical Mechanics, and Materials Science.
NCRA-TIFR
National Centre for Radio Astrophysics, TIFR, Pune: Astronomy and Astrophysics.
NISER
National Institute of Science Education and Research, Bhubaneswar: Theoretical High Energy Physics and Lattice QCD, Experimental High Energy Physics, Condensed Matter Physics (Theoryand Experiment), Optics and Metamaterials.
PRL
Physical Research Laboratory, Ahmedabad: Theoretical Physics, Astronomy and Astrophysics, Solar Physics, Space and Atmospheric Sciences, Planetary Science and Geo-Sciences.
RRCAT
Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology, Indore: Lasers and their Applications, Laser Plasma Interaction, Cold Atom Physics, Condensed Matter Physics (Superconductivity andMagnetism, Crystals and Thin Films), Nanomaterials and Applications, Non-linear and Ultrafast Optical Studies, Beam Physics, and Free Electron Laser.
RRI
Raman Research Institute, Bangalore: Astronomy and Astrophysics, Light and Matter Physics, Soft Condensed Matter Physics (Liquid Crystals, Physics in Biology), and Theoretical Physics.
SINP
Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics, Kolkata: Condensed Matter Physics (Theory and Experiments), Nuclear Physics (Theory and Experiments), High Energy Physics (Theory and Experiments),Astroparticle Physics, Quantum Gravity, String Theory, Mathematical Physics, and Materials Science (Surface Science and Plasma Physics).
SNBNCBS
Satyendra Nath Bose National Centre for Basic Sciences, Kolkata: Astrophysics and Cosmology, Chemical and Biological Physics, Condensed Matter Physics and Material Science, HighEnergy Physics and Quantum Field Theory, Mathematical Physics, Nanosciences, Quantum Optics and Quantum Information, Statistical Physics, and Complex Systems.
UGC-DAE CSR
UGC-DAE Consortium for Scientific Research, Indore: Surfaces, Interfaces, Thin Films and Nanomaterials, Physics at Low Temperatures and High Magnetic Fields, X-ray, Optical andElectron Spectroscopic Studies Using Synchrotron and Laboratory Sources; Electrical, Magnetic and Thermal Properties of Condensed Matter; Condensed Matter studies using Magnetic NeutronDiffraction, Nuclear Technique Based Condensed Matter Physics-Positron Annihilation Spectroscopy, Mossbauer Spectroscopy, Experimental Nuclear Physics, Gamma Ray Spectroscopy of NuclearHigh Spin States, and Nuclear Reactions.
VECC
Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre, Kolkata: Accelerator Physics, Condensed Matter Physics and Materials Science, Nuclear Physics (Experiments and Theory), Relativistic Heavy Ion Collisions(Experiments, Theory, QCD and QGP), and Physics of Neutrinos (Experiments).

Exam Centers
JEST will be held at the locations indicated below. There will be multiple test centers at Kolkata and Delhi.
Ahmedabad
Aligarh
Allahabad
Bangalore
Bardhaman
Bhopal
Bhubaneswar
Chandigarh
Chennai
Delhi
Goa
Guwhati
Hyderabad
Indore
Jaipur
Kanpur
Kharagpur
Kochi
Kolkata
Madurai
Mumbai
Nagpur
Nainital
Patna
Pune
Raipur
Roorkee
Sambalpur
Silchar
Siliguri
Trivandrum
Udaipur
Vishakhapatnam

How to apply
Register with a valid email address and create new account. Upon successful registration, login to apply for Joint Entrance Screening Test (JEST) online.
An Application Fee of Rs.100/- (Rs.50/- for SC/ST) is required.
Online applications are preferred, but for those who have difficulty in accessing the internet, a hard copy of the application form can be requested by writing to
The JEST Coordinator,
Department of Physics,
Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore 560 012 India
Email applications and photocopies of printed applications will not be accepted.

Important Dates
Request for printed application forms should reach JEST Coordinator by 5th December, 2011.
Last date for receipt of the filled applications, and ON-LINE submission of applications, is15th December, 2011.
JEST - 2012 written test will be held on 19th February, 2012.

Last date for online application is December 15, 2011.
Last date for request of postal application form is December 5, 2011..
Last date for receipt of completed postal application form is December 15, 2011.
Date for JEST 2012 written test is February 19, 2012.

For more details please visit: http://www.jest.org.in/joint_entrance_screening_test

UGC NET Public administration Solved Paper

1. To which of the following notions of the man in an organizational set-up does the concept of bounded rationality relate more closely?
1. Economic
2. Optimizing
3. Administrative
4. Satisficing
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)

2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Advocate) (Model)
A. Herbert Simon 1. Mixed scanning model
B. Charles Lindblom 2. Economic rationality model
C. Amitai Etzioni 3. Bounded rationality model
4. Incremental model
Code:
A B C
(a) 3 2 4
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 3
(d) 3 4 1
Ans. (d)

3.According to Yehezkel Dror, which of the following characteristics of the optimal model of policy making help man in understanding the optimal model?
1. It contains both rational and extra-rational elements.
2. It has basic rationality and economic rationality.
3. It contains a built-in-feedback system.
4. it adopts the methodology of logical positivism.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)

4. Which of the following are propounded by the Theory Y of Douglas McGregor?
1. exercises self-direction in the service of objectives that he seeks to realize
2. has commitment to objectives as a function of rewards
3. inherently likes work

4. has a capacity for imagination, ingenuity and creativity.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (c)

5. Which one of the following leadership styles was identified by the Michigan University Leadership Studies as the most effective leadership style?
(a) Democratic style leadership
(b) Employee-centered leadership
(c) Participative group leadership
(d) Team leadership
Ans. (b)

6. Who among the following has observed that instead of hierarchy of needs, motivation should be understood in terms of series of needs?
(a) Chester Barnard
(b) David Mc Clelland
(c) Abraham Maslow
(d) Warren Bennis
Ans. (b)

7. According to Frederick Herzberg, the determinants of Job dissatisfaction include
1. Working condition
2. Supervision
3. Salary
4. Responsibility
5. Recognition
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 4 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5only
Ans. (b)

UNIT-V
ACCOUNTABILITY AND CONTROL
8 According Henri Fayol, which of the following actions are required in supervisory control process?
1. Standard actions
2. Corrective actions
3. Coercive actions
4. Evaluative actions.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) l and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (d)

9. On which of the following factors does people’s participation depend for its success in influencing the governance process?
1. Ability of the people to participate
2. Willingness for the people to participate
3. Opportunity4o the people to participate
4. Mechanisms available for participation.
Code:
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) l, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)

UNIT-VI
ADMINISTRATIVE SYSTEMS
10. Which one of the following thinkers was first to talk about the concept of ‘Constructive Conflict’ in an organization?
(a) Elton Mayo
(b) Mary Parker Follett
(c) Peter Blau
(d) Henri Fayol
Ans. (b)

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Commission/Committee) (Recommendation)
A. First Hoover Commission 1. Division of training and education
B. First Hoover Commission 2. Reorganization of US President’s office
C. Brown low Committee 3. Senior executive service
D. Fulton Committee 4. Office of general service Administration
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (b)

12. By which one of the following Acts, are the political activities of civil servants in the USA regulated?
(a) The Hatch Act of 1939
(b) The Civil Service Act of 1833
(c) The Ramspeck Act of 1940
(d) The Taft-Kartley Act of 1947
Ans. (a)

13. The office of the Ombudsman like institution in the form of Parliamentary Commissioner, for Administration in the United Kingdom was set up on the recommendations of which one of the following reports?
(a) Sir John Whyatt Report
(b) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(c) Fulton Report
(d) Aitchison Report
Ans. (a)

14. Which one of the following statements in respect of the French Civil Service is not correct?
(a) ENA is concerned with the training of technical personnel
(b) Basic unit of organization of the civil service is called Corps.
(c) French Civil Service is elitist
(d) Civil servants are allowed to take leave and contest for political offices.
Ans. (a)

15. Which of the following local government units are prevalent in France?
1. Department
2. Arrondissement
3. Canton
4. Commune
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c)

16. The Amakudari system in respect of the civil service in Japan is
(a) a post-retirement assignment
(b) professional training
(c) foreign posting
(d) monetary compensation
Ans. (a)

17. Which of the following statements “regarding civil services in Japan is/are correct”?
1. The NPA and MCA are its principal controlling and coordinating agencies.
2. The Japanese higher civil service is elitist.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of above
Ans. (c)

18. In which among the following countries is Charter Mark programme being effectively used to evaluate the performance of government agencies through outside independent agencies?
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Great Britain
(d) USA
Ans. (c)

19. The “Collegial” type of executive can be found in which one of the following countries?
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Switzerland
(d) Great Britain
Ans. (c)

UNIT-V
PERSONNEL ADMINISTRATION
20. Which one of the following experiments was not included in the Hawthorne experiments?
(a) Bank wiring observation room
(b) Relay assembly test room
(c) Cutting metals
(d) Greg illumination
Ans. (c)

21. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of the four basic steps in the position classification plan?
(a) Job analysis-Grouping of positions Standardization-Position allocation
(b) Standardization-Job analysis grouping of positions-Position allocation
(c) Grouping of positions -job analysis – Position allocation-Standardization
(d) Job analysis-Grouping of position-Position allocation-Standardization
Ans. (a)

22. According to W.F. Willoughby, which of the following are correct about the essentials of a sound promotion system?
1. Adoption of standard specifications setting forth the duties and qualifications required for all positions in a government service.
2. Classification of all positions into distinct classes, grades and services based on duty classification.
3. The inclusion within this classification of all administrative positions except those having a political character
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)

23. Which of the following scholars has/have not laid any marked emphasis on administrative ethics?
(a) Paul Appleby
(b) Frederick Mosher
(c) Chanakya
(d) David Osborne and Ted Gaebler
Ans. (c)

UNIT-VIII
FINANCIAL ADMINISTRATION
24. Who among the following has focused on the politics of the budgetary process?
(a) Robert Golembiewski
(b) Aaron Wildavsky
(c) Jesse Birkhead
(d) A. Premchand
Ans. (b)

25. Which of the following is/are advantage/advantages of zero-based budgeting?
1. It eliminates or minimizes the low priority programmes.
2. it improves the programme effectiveness.
3. it facilitates critical review of schemes in terms of their cost effectiveness and cost benefits.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)

UNIT-IX
UNION GOVERNMENT AND ADMINISTRATION ININDIA:
BRITISH LEGACY
26. Which one of the following is a Parliamentary Standing Committee?
(a) Draft Committee on Five Year Plan
(b) Railway Convention Committee
(c) Business Advisory Committee
(d) Joint Committee on Fertilizer
Ans. (b)

27. The legacy of British rule in India includes which of the following?
1. Creation of the ICS (Indian Civil Services)
2. Secretarial System
3. Local Self-government
4. Law and Order Administration
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)

28. Consider the following statements:
The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India comprises of
1. pension payable to Judges of High Court.
2. debt charges for which the Government of India is liable.
3. salary, allowances and pension payable to- Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)

29. Which of the following statements about separation of the Railway Budget from the General Budget of India are correct?
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with the
1. To introduce flexibility in railway finance management
2. To facilitate a business approach to the railway policy.
3. To secure stability of the general revenues by providing an assured annual contribution from railway revenues.
4. To enable the railways to keen their profits for their own development.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (c)

30. Consider the following statements:
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provision only dealing with the
1. imposition, abolition, alteration or regulation of any tax
2. regulation of the borrowing of money by the government.
3. appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
4. custody of the Contingency Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)

31. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the powers of the Parliament of India in enacting the budget?
(a) It can increase a tax, but not reduce it.
(b) It can increase a tax as well as reduce or abolish it.
(c) It can not increase a tax but can reduce or abolish it.
(d) It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it.
Ans. (c)

32. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of parliamentary debate on Appropriation Bill?
1. No amendments can be moved on the amount of expenditure.
2. Speaker is empowered to withhold permission on matters of repetitive nature.
3. Rajya Sabha has power to amend or reject the Bill.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above.
Ans. (a)

33. Which of the following is/are correct in respect of ‘Zero Hour’ discussion?
1. It is not directed against individual Minister.
2. It covers questions raised over matters of public importance.
Code:
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans. (b)

34. Through which of the following is judicial control over administration in India exercised?
1. Adjudication
2. Judicial Review
3. Writs
4. Public Interest Litigation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (d)

35. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the writ of Prohibition?
1. It is an order issued by a higher court commanding a lower court to cease from proceeding in some mailers not within its jurisdiction.
2. It can be claimed by an aggrieved party as a matter of right.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

36. Which of the following is/are not correct in respect of the Right to Information Act, 2005?
1. Information in-respect of allegation of violation of human rights can be obtained in 30 days.
2. There are restrictions for third party information.
3. Total penalty for not providing information shall not exceed Rs. 5,000.
4. Appeal against the decision of the Central/ State Public Information Officer can be made to officers of higher rank.
Code:
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (c)

37. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts has/have made the decisions of the Council of Ministers binding on the President of “India“?
(a) 42 and 44th Amendment Act
(b) 43rd Amendment Act
(c) 40th Amendment Act
(d) 40th and 41st Amendment
Ans. (a)

38. Which of the following statements with regard to the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) is/are correct?
1. The PMO was given the status of a department under the Government’s of India Allocation of Business Rules, 1961.
2. Jurisdiction of the PMO extends over all such subjects and activities as are not specially allotted to any individual department.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

39. Consider the following statements:
Indicative planning indicates the
1. broad directions of development.
2. long-term goals in strategic areas
3. exclusive areas of government planning
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 2only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a)

40. Which of the following accounts is/are not maintained by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
1 The Accounts of a State
2. The Railway Accounts
3. The Union Government Accounts
4. Defense Accounts
Code:
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (b)

41. Which one of the correct?
(a) There are two categories of Mini Ratna Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) in India.
(b) The Mini Ratna PSEs can have wholly owned subsidiaries.
(c) The Mini Ratna PSEs cannot raise capital from the international market.
(d) The Mini Ratna PSEs can induction-official directors.
Ans. (a)

42. On which of the following does the Finance Commission make recommendations to the President of India?
1. The distribution between Union and States of next proceeds of taxes and allocation between the States of their respective shares of shares of such proceeds.
2. The principles which should govern the grant- in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

43. Consider the following statements with respect to the Election Commission of India:
1. The terms of office of the Election Commissioners is the same as the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.
2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or other Election Commissioners, the matter is referred the President of India.
3. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a special provision under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)

44. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
(a) The CAG has been awarded a fully independent status
(b) The CAG can only be removed on the recommendation of the President
(c) The salary and emoluments of the CAG are charged from the Consolidated Fund of India.
(d) The tenure of CAG is fixed for six years.
Ans. (b)

45. Consider the following statements with respect to duties of the Prime Minister according to the Constitution of India:
1. To make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business
2. If the President so requires, to Submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

46. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Committee/Commission Reports?
(a) Macaulay-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Islington
(b) Aitchison-Macaulay-Fulton-Islington-Lee
(c) Macaulay-Aitchison-lslington-Lee-Fulton
(d) Islington-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Macaulay
Ans. (c)

47. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Cabinet Secretary of India?
(a) The office of the Cabinet Secretary was created in the year 1950.
(b) ‘The Cabinet Secretary is the principal secretary to the Prime Minister
(c) The Cabinet Secretary provides secretarial assistance to all Cabinet Committees
(d) Tenure of the Cabinet Secretary is fixed for five years.
Ans. (d)

48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code below:
List-I List-II
A. Lord Wellesley 1. Created the post of Civil Judge
B. Warren Hastings 2. Created the office of Chief Secretary
C. William Bentinck 3. Created the office of District Collector
D. Lord Cornwallis 4. Created the post of Deputy Collector
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans. (c)

49. Consider the following statements The Prime Minister as the head of the Council of Ministers
1. has a free hand in the distribution of the Council of Ministers
2. can reshuffle the Ministers and ask any Minister to resign
3. is bound by the advice of the Ministers
4. advises the Ministers in day-to-day administration of Ministries.
Which of the given above are correct?
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)

50. Assertion (A): Conventional Public Administration is based upon the dichotomy of politics and. administration.
Reason (R): Public Administration in India and Britain is opposed to any political role of civil servants.
Ans. (b)

UGC-NET Solved Question Paper -2010

Subject – History

Note – This paper contains fifty multiple choice questions, each question carrying two marks.
Attempt all of them.

1. given below are two statements one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The rise of religious movements condition of the deprive sections of the society embolden them to seek their rightful place.
Reason (R): The improved economic conditions of the deprived sections of the society embolden them to seek their rightful place.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below –
Codes:
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

2. given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Kushana period witnessed large scale cultural integration.
Reason (R): Kushana Kings advocated themselves it by example.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true.

3. Arrange the following into sequential order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Megalithic period.
(ii) Chalcolithic period.
(iii) Northern black polished ware.
(iv) Black and Red ware.
Codes:          
(a) (iii), (iv), (I), (ii)                      
(b) (ii), (iv), (I), (iii)
(c) (iv), (ii), (iii), (I)                     
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

4. Arrange the following into sequential order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Janapada                                   
(ii) Mahajanapada
(iii) Empire                                   
(iv) Jana
Codes:
(a) (ii), (iii), (I), (iv)                      
(b) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(c) (iv), (I), (ii), (iii)                      
(d) (iv), (ii), (I), (iii)

5. Arrange the followings into sequential order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Malvikagnimitra                      
(ii) Harshacharta
(iii) Ashtadhyayi                                          
(iv) Rajatarangini
Codes:
(a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (I)                      
(b) (iii), (ii), (I), (iv)
(c) (iv), (ii), (I), (iii)                      
(d) (iii), (I), (ii), (iv)

6. Which of the following is associated with the lower Paleolithic period?
(a) Home Erectus                          
(b) Neanderthal
(c) Homo Sapience                       
(d) Homo sapience sapience

7. Which among the following represents the Mesolithic period?
(a) Olduwan tools                         
(b) Hand axe
(c) Triangle tools                          
(d) polished tools

8. Which among the following denotes the Neolithic period?
(a) Kunal          
(b) Lothal         
(c) Daimabad   
(d) Chirand

9. given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Harappa civilization was developed with the application of copper tools.
Reason (R): This enabled people to make better use of the available natural resources.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes below:
Codes:
(a) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is true.           
(b) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true.                    
(d) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.

10. given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): During the Rig Vedic period the society was pastoral.
Reason (R): The mode of subsistence was primarily based on pastoralism.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is untrue, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.    
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

11. In which of the following forces it is stated that prithviraj III entertained the ambition of conquering the whole world?
(a) Taj-ul-Maasir                          
(b) Prithviraj Prabandha
(c) Tabqat-i-Nasiri                       
(d) Prithviraj Raso

12. Who among the following Delhi Sultans enlarged the Quwwat-ul-islam mosque?
(i) illtutmish                                   
(ii) Balban
(iii) Alaud-din Khilji                    
(iv) Firozshah Tughlaq
Select your answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (I), (ii), (iv)                               
(b) (I) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)                               
(d) (I), (ii), (iii)

13. Who among the following sultans of Delhi advocated the policy that “follows the middle course in realizing the Kharaj”?
(a) Balban                                       
(b) Jalalud-din Khilji
(c) Ghyasud-din Tughlaq             
(d) Firoj Tughlaq

14. Which of the following statements are not true about sultan ghyasud-din Tughlaq?
(i) He befriended sheikh Nizamuddin aulia
(ii) He gave certain concessions to Khots and Muqaddams
(iii) He sent his son Ulugh Khan to recover arrears of tribute from pratapa Rudra
(iv) He levied a tax termed haqq-i-shurb
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(a) (I), (ii) and (iii)                        
(b) (I) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)                              
(d) (ii) and (iv)

15. Who put forth the hypothesis of ‘Urban revolution’ in northern India during the thirteenth and fourteenth centuries?
(a) K. M. Ashraf                              
(b) Moreland
(c) Mohammad                              
(d) K. S. Lal

16. Arrange the following into sequential order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Pulkeshin-II                              
(ii) Pushyamitra shunga
(iii) Shankaracharya                     
(iv) Chandrabardai
Codes:
(a) (ii), (I), (iii), (iv)                      
(b) (I), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (iii), (iv), (ii), (I)                      
(d) (iv), (I), (iii), (ii)

17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(a) Levirate                                   
(b) Punch-marked coins
(c) Varmanas                                 
(d) Nalanda
List – II
(i) Kamrup                                     
(ii) Rig Veda
(iii) Bihar                                       
(iv) Early historical period
Codes:
              (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         2             3             1             4
(B)         2             4             1             3
(C)         2             3             4             1
(D)         4             3             2             1
18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(a) Second Urbanization              
(b) Kharavela
(c) Gautamiputra                          
(d) Vikramadeva Charita
List – II
1. Satavahana Dynasty                 
2. Bilhana
3. Orissa                                        
 4. Iron
Codes:
              (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         4             1             2             3
(B)         3             2             4             1
(C)         2             4             3             1
(D)         4             3             1             2

19. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(a) Nagar style of architecture    
(b) Shravanbelagola
(c) Tantrayan                                 
(d) Mahenderaverman Shailey
List – II
1. Buddhism                                   
2. Pallava dynasty
3. North India                                 
4. Karnataka
Codes:
               (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         3             4             1             2
(B)         4             1             2             3
(C)         2             4             3             1
(D)         4             3             1             2

20. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(a) Kalibanga                                 
(b) Mitathal
(c) Atranjikhera                             
(d) Jakhera
List – II
1. R. C. Gaur                                   
2. M. D. N. Sahi
3. Suraj Bhan                                 
4. B. B. Lal
Codes:
              (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         2             3             1             4
(B)         4             3             1             2
(C)         3             4             2             1
(D)         1             3             4             2

21. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The arrival of north Indian Sufis in the Deccan during the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries brought deep changes in the region’s political and religious fabric.
Reason (R): They came to the Deccan to justify Khalji and early Tughlaq invasions of the Deccan plateau.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a)    (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c)    (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d)   (A) is false but (R) is true.

22. Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the vijayanagara ruling dynasties?
(a) Saluva, Tuluva, Sangama, Aravidu
(b) Sangama, Suluva, Tuluva, Aravidu
(c) Sangama, Tuluva, Saluva, Aravidu
(d) Sangama, Aravidu, Saluva, Tuluva

23. The Portuguese captured Goa in the year –
(a) 1496            
(b) 1510            
(c) 1524            
(d) 1556

24. Arrange the following events into correct chronological order:
(i) Propagation of Vaishnavite Bhakti by Ramananda
(ii) Compilation of Adigrantha
(iii) Close of the Ibadatkhana
(iv) Foundation of the Chishti order in the Daccan
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (I), (iv), (iii), (ii)                      
(b) (I), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iv), (I), (iii)                     
(d) (iv), (I), (iii), (ii)

25. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Akbar proclaimed Dahsala in the twenty-fourth year his reign.
Reason (R): He decided to abolish all other existing methods of land revenue assessment in the Mughal empire.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a)    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c)    (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d)   (A) is false but (R) is true.

26. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(a)    The mughal conquest of Malwa
(b)   Introduction of the Ilahi Era
(c)    Annexation of Kashmir in Mughal Empire
(d)   Conquest of Odisha
List – II
1. 1584
(b) 1592            
(c) 1585            
(d) 1561

27. Which of the following illustrated manuscripts were prepared during Akbar’s time?
(a) The Diwan-i-Amir Hasan Dihlavi
(b) The Raj kanwar
(c) The Tutinama
(d) The Yoga vashista
Select your answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (I), (ii), and (iv)                       
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (I), (iii) and (iv)                       
(d) (iii) and (iv)

28. Who among the following foreign travelers described the manufacture of indigo in India?
(a) Ibn  Battuata                             
(b) Nicolo De Conti
(c) William Finch                          
(d) Peter Mundi

29. Match List – I with List – II and select the answers from the codes given below:
List – I
(a) Ahmad Yadgar
(b) Sujan Rai
(c) Khwaja Kamghar Ghairat Khan
(d) Shah Nawaz Khan
List – II
1. Maasir-i-Jahangiri                    
2. Maasir-ul-Umara
3. Tarikh-i-Salatin-i-Afghaniah  
4. Khulast-ut-Twarikh
Codes:
              (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         3            4             1             2
(B)         2             1             3             4
(C)         3             2             1             4

30. Shahu was set free from the Mughal captivity by –
(a) Aurangzeb                                
(b) Prince Azam
(c) Prince Kambakhsh                  
(d Jahandar shah

31. By which act the British Parliament had abolished the monopoly of East India Company’s trade in India?
(a) Regulating Act, 1773              
(b) Charter Act, 1813
(c) Charter Act, 1833                    
(d) Government of India Act, 1858

32. Arrange the following British Legislations concerning women in chronological order:
(i) Hindu Widow Remarriage Act
(ii) The Native Marriage Act (Civil Marriage Act)
(iii) Abolition of Sati in Bengal Province
(iv) The Age of Consent Act
Codes:
(a) (iii), (I), (ii), (iv)                      
(b) (I), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iv), (ii), (I), (iii)                      
(d) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)

33. Arrange in chronological order the Famine Commissions formed by the Government of British India:
Macdowell Commission formed by the Government of British India:
(i) Macdowell Commission         
(b) Lyall Commission
(iii) Campbell Commission         
(d) Strachey Commission
Codes:
(a) (iv), (iii), (ii), (I)                      
(b) (iii), (iv), (I), (ii)
(c) (I), (ii), (iii), (iv)                      
(d) (ii), (iii), (I), (iv)

34. Maulana Shibli Nomani belonged to the –
(a) Aligarh School                         
(b) Deoband Madarsa
(c) Firangi Mahal                          
(d) Nadwat-ul-ulema

35. Gandhiji’s intervention in the Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1917 led to the enhancement of wages of the workers by –
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 35%
(d) 40%

36. Who was known as the father of ‘Humanism’?
(a) Dante                                         
(b) Erasmus
(c) Machiavelli                              
(d) Petrarch

37. The fee paid to the Lord for the use of the mill, brewery and bakery was known as –
(a) Banalite      
(b) Corvee        
(c) Gabelle       
(d) Taille

38. The theory of ‘General Will’ was put forward by –
(a) Diderot        
(b) Montesquieu             
(c) Rousseau    
(d) Voltaire

39. Bullionism and the favourable balance of trade were the basic features of –
(a) Colonialism                             
(b) Commercialism
(c) Free Trade                                
(d) Mercantilism

40. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List – I
(a) Erasmus      
(b) Machiavelli
(c) Thomas More
(d) Dante
List – II
1. Divine Comedy                         
2. Utopia
3. The Prince                                  
4. Praise of Folly
Codes:
              (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         3            2             1             4
(B)         2             1             3             4
(C)         1             2             3             4
(D)         4             3             2             1

41. The chief grievance of the peasants in Champaran Satyagraha (1917) was against the –
(a) A wabs or illegal cesses
(b) Oppression of the landlords
(c) Land revenue demand
(d) Tinkathia system

42. In which Session the Indian National Congress adopted the resolution on Fundamental Rights?
(a) Madras (1927)                         
(b) Lahore (1929)
(c) Karachi (1931)                        
(d) Faizpur (1936)

43. Who argued that de-industrialization did not take place in India under the colonial rule?
(a) Amiyo Baghchi                        
(b) Bipan Chandra
(c) Morris D Morris                      
(d) Toru Matsui

44. Who founded the Hindu College of Calcutta in 1817?
(a) David Hare                               
(b) William Jones
(c) H. T. Princep                                           
(d) Henry Vivian Derozio

45. Match List – I with List – II and select correct answer.
List – I
(a) Maulana Abul kalam Azad    
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan                           
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
List – I
1. The Indian Struggle
2. Asbab-i-Bhagawt-i-Hind
3. Poverty and Un-British Rule in India
4. India wins freedom
Codes:
               (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         4             3             2             1
(B)         3             2             1             4
(C)         2             4             3             1
(D)         1             2             3             4

46. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer.
List – I
(a) Chinnava                                  
(b) Haji Shariat Ullah
(c) Alluri Sitaram Raju                 
(d) Krishna Daji Pandit
List – II
1. Rampa Uprising 1922             
2. Gadkari Revolt 1944
3. Faraizi Movement 1838                          
4. Dittur Uprising 1924
Codes:
                (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         4             3             1             2
(B)         3             4             1             2
(C)         1             2             3             4
(D)         2             1             4             3

47. Paramountcy is the position of permanent power enjoyed by the British Government in relation to the –
(a) Zamindars                                
(b) Princely states
(c) Peasants                                    
(d) Christian Missionaries

48. The Congress Ministry in Madras during 1937-39 was headed by –
(a) T. Prakasham                                          
(b) Subramanium Bharti
(c) C. Rajgopalachari                    
(d) K. Kamraj

49. Who was the Chairman of the Crafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad                
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) B. N. Rau                                  
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

50. Arrange the following events in their chronological order:
(i) Cripps Mission                         
(ii) Quit India Movement
(iii) Individual Satyagraha           
(iv) August Offer
(a) I, ii, iii, iv                                  
(b) iv, iii, I, ii
(c) iii, iv, ii, I                                  
(d) ii, I, iv, iii

Answers:

1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
A	D	B	C	B	A	C	D	C	D
11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
A	B	C	*	C	A	B	D	A	B
21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
C	B	B	D	C	B	D	C	A	B
31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
B	A	*	D	A	D	A	C	B	A
41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
A	C	C	A	A	A	B	*	B	B